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Question # 4

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

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Question # 5

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Question # 6

Which of the following is NOT a product risk?

A.

Poor software usability

B.

Failure-prone software is delivered

C.

Problems in defining the right requirements

D.

Software does not perform the intended functions

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Question # 7

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Question # 8

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

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Question # 9

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Question # 10

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

B.

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C.

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

D.

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Question # 12

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

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Question # 13

The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing” is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?

A.

Sequential development model.

B.

Iterative development model.

C.

Incremental development model.

D.

All the above

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Question # 14

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

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Question # 15

Given the following state model of sales order software:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Question # 16

For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

A.

8

B.

3

C.

6

D.

4

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Question # 17

Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II Requirements based scenarios

III Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

A.

I, Ill

B.

I. II

C.

II. IV

D.

III. IV

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Question # 18

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

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Question # 19

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 20

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

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Question # 21

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Question # 22

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

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Question # 23

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Question # 24

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

A.

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Question # 25

NO: 157

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?

A.

Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.

B.

Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.

C.

When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.

D.

Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.

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Question # 26

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

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Question # 27

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Question # 28

Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?

A.

Unit test and acceptance test ate the most important tests to make sure that the system works as expected.

B.

Each iteration of testing has to be completely finished before a new Iteration of development starts.

C.

Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system. D. Only certain types of non-functional and explorative testing are performed.

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Question # 29

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

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Question # 30

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

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Question # 31

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

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Question # 32

Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

A.

To automate tests.

B.

To prepare and acquire test data.

C.

To set up the test environment.

D.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

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Question # 33

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Question # 34

NO: 119

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Question # 35

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

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Question # 36

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Question # 37

During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?

A.

Try to recreate the incident before reporting

B.

Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

C.

Send an email to the developer and not report the bug

D.

Report the incident as is without any further action

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Question # 38

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

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Question # 39

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5 passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct current password, but enters an invalid password

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

A.

The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

B.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail confirming that the password has been successfully changed

C.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally views the dedicated error

D.

The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful

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Question # 40

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

A.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

B.

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

C.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

D.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

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Question # 41

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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Question # 42

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Question # 43

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Code inspection

C.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.

Coverage analysis

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Question # 44

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?

A.

Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this

B.

No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

C.

Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

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Question # 45

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

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Question # 46

Atypical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to

A.

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

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Question # 47

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

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Question # 48

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Question # 49

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Question # 50

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

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Question # 51

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

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Question # 52

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

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Question # 53

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

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Question # 54

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 55

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Question # 56

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Question # 57

The whole-team approach:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Question # 58

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

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Question # 59

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

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Question # 60

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

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Question # 61

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Question # 62

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

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Question # 63

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Question # 64

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Question # 65

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

A.

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

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Question # 66

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

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Question # 67

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

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Question # 68

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

A.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

B.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

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Question # 69

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

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Question # 70

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.

The team agreed on the following:

1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.

2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.

The result of the first round of planning poker:

Team MemberEstimation

BusinessLarge

DevelopmentExtra-extra-large

TestingExtra-extra-large

Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

A.

The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.

B.

The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.

C.

Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.

D.

the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.

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Question # 71

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

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Question # 72

What is test oracle?

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Question # 73

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Question # 74

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

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Question # 75

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Question # 76

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

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Question # 77

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive. Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Question # 78

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Question # 79

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Question # 80

Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?

A.

Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.

B.

Static testing reduces testing costs and time.

C.

Static testing increases development costs and time.

D.

Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.

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Question # 81

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Question # 82

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

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Question # 83

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

A.

i and iv

B.

i and ii

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Question # 84

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Question # 85

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Question # 86

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps, the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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