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Question # 4

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Question # 5

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

A.

Express an opinion on the participants' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Question # 6

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 7

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

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Question # 8

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 9

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 10

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

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Question # 11

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

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Question # 12

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Question # 13

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 14

An internal auditor is assessing the organization's risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 15

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement's objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 16

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Question # 17

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

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Question # 18

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

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Question # 19

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate's ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Question # 20

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 21

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Question # 22

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

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Question # 23

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner's approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

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Question # 24

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the "communicate" phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Question # 26

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

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Question # 27

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Question # 28

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 29

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 30

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

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Question # 31

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding periodic internal assessments of the internal audit activity?

A.

Internal assessments are conducted to benchmark the internal audit activity's performance against industry best practices.

B.

Internal assessments must be performed at least once every five years by a qualified assessor.

C.

An internal auditor may perform a peer review of a colleague's workpapers, as long as the auditor wasn't involved in the audit under review.

D.

Follow-up to ensure appropriate improvements are implemented is a recommended, but not mandatory, element of internal assessments.

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Question # 32

During an audit engagement, the internal auditor discussed a risk mitigation recommendation with the manager of the area under review. The manager disagreed with the risk assessment and recommendation. The two failed to come up with an alternative solution, and the auditor decided to proceed with including the original recommendation in the engagement report. Which of the following is especially important in dealing with this type of situation?

A.

Soft skills in communication, negotiation, and collaboration.

B.

Technical skills in the area under review.

C.

Professional qualifications and certification in internal auditing.

D.

Confidentiality and independence.

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Question # 33

Which of the following statements is true about The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework?

A.

The core competencies outlined in the framework are not expected of a person undertaking an entry-level position as an internal auditor.

B.

The framework is designed to be used primarily by chief audit executives that are developing indicators to measure the performance of the internal audit activity for which they are responsible.

C.

The framework lists the core competencies internal auditors should possess before attempting to attain The IIA's Certified Internal Auditor certification.

D.

The framework describes competencies needed for individual internal auditors, but not those necessary at the chief audit executive level.

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Question # 34

An auditor in charge was reviewing the workpapers submitted by a newly hired internal auditor. She noted that the new auditor's analytical work did not include any rating or quantification of the risk assessment results, and she returned the workpapers for correction. Which section of the workpapers will the new auditor need to modify?

A.

Condition section.

B.

Criteria section.

C.

Effect section.

D.

Cause section.

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Question # 35

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

A.

An internal auditor evaluates the significant risks arising from a consulting engagement.

B.

An internal auditor declares that he would have a conflict of interest in providing planned audit support.

C.

An internal auditor has been given sufficient authority to access documents needed to make an appraisal of an issue.

D.

An internal auditor uses technology-based audit techniques to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

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Question # 36

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

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Question # 37

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

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Question # 38

Which of the following is not an objective of internal control?

A.

Compliance.

B.

Accuracy.

C.

Efficiency.

D.

Validation.

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Question # 39

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services.

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

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Question # 40

Which of the following best ensures the independence of the internal audit activity?

1. The CEO and audit committee review and endorse any changes to the approved audit plan on an annual basis.

2. The audit committee reviews the performance of the chief audit executive (CAE) periodically.

3. The internal audit charter requires the CAE to report functionally to the audit committee.

A.

3 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 41

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an area in which the internal auditor should be proficient?

A.

Management principles.

B.

Computerized information systems.

C.

Internal audit standards, procedures, and techniques.

D.

Fundamentals of accounting, economics, and finance.

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Question # 42

Forty-five percent of an organization's customer payments are submitted online. Eight percent of online payments are rejected. Executive management decides to outsource its online payment services to a contractor that will assume 75 percent of the total value of rejected payments. The organization estimates $1.25 million customer payments due during the contract period.

Which of the following represents the organization's residual risk for online customer payments due?

A.

$11, 250

B.

$25, 000

C.

$33, 750

D.

$45, 000

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Question # 43

An internal auditor is evaluating techniques management uses to mitigate risks within a particular product division. Which of the following is an example of risk reduction?

A.

Management sells the product division to a competitor.

B.

Management outsources the product division to a third party.

C.

Management allows the product division to remain unchanged.

D.

Management modifies the product division to minimize errors.

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Question # 44

An internal audit charter, approved by the board, restricts the internal audit activity to providing assurance only on the reliability of financial information and the effectiveness of internal accounting controls. Which of the following statements is true regarding the extent to which the external auditor may rely on the internal audit activity's work?

A.

The external auditor may make full use of the work, as the audit charter is very specific as to the work the internal audit activity may undertake.

B.

The external auditor may use the work, as the board has approved the charter, thus taking responsibility for any deficiencies.

C.

The external auditor must disregard the work, as the scope of the charter may introduce bias and result in a lack of due professional care.

D.

The external auditor may use the work with caution, due to the internal audit activity's scope and responsibility restrictions.

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Question # 45

A large trucking organization wants to reduce traffic accidents by improving its system of internal controls.

Which of the following controls is correctly classified?

1. Review of speeding violations to identify repetitive locations and drivers is an example of a preventive control.

2. Defensive driver training is an example of a directive control.

3. The installation of tracking devices in delivery vehicles is an example of a corrective control.

4. Providing a vehicle driver handbook is an example of a detective control.

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 46

As a matter of policy, the chief audit executive routinely rotates internal audit staff assignments and periodically interviews the staff to discuss the potential for conflicts of interest. These actions help fulfill which of the following internal audit mandates?

A.

Organizational independence.

B.

Professional objectivity.

C.

Due professional care.

D.

Individual proficiency.

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Question # 47

According to The MA Code of Ethics, which of the following is one of the rules of conduct for objectivity?

A.

Internal auditors shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services.

B.

Internal auditors shall respect and contribute to legitimate and ethical objectives of the organization.

C.

Internal auditors shall not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair their professional judgment.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties.

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Question # 48

According to COSO, which of the following describes a principle related to the control environment?

A.

The organization identifies and assesses changes that could significantly impact the system of internal control.

B.

The organization establishes appropriate authorities and responsibilities in the pursuit of objectives.

C.

The organization selects and develops control activities that contribute to the mitigation of risks.

D.

The organization performs evaluations to ascertain whether internal control components are present and functioning.

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Question # 49

Which of the following options is the most cost-effective and efficient way for internal auditors to keep current with the latest developments in the internal audit profession?

A.

Attending annual professional conferences and seminars.

B.

Participating in on-the-job training in various departments of the organization.

C.

Pursuing as many professional certifications as possible.

D.

Maintaining membership in The HA and similar professional organizations and subscribing to relevant email updates or news feeds.

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Question # 50

An organization is facing a financial downturn and needs to impose major budget reductions to all departments. According to MA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for the board to take to evaluate the potential impact on the internal audit activity?

A.

Ask management to determine which internal audit engagements are lower risk and could be considered for removal from the annual audit plan.

B.

Ask appropriate stakeholders for their opinion on the potential impacts of reducing the scope of the internal audit plan.

C.

Ask the chief audit executive to determine whether budgetary limitations impede the ability of the internal audit activity to execute its responsibilities.

D.

Ask The human resources department to determine how the annual compensation and salary of the audit staff could be adjusted to achieve savings.

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Question # 51

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be included in the internal audit charter?

A.

The minimum resources and competencies needed for the internal audit activity.

B.

Identification of the organizational units where engagements are to be performed.

C.

Organizational relationships and reporting lines.

D.

Assigned responsibilities for designing and implementing controls.

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Question # 52

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is ultimately responsible for seeing that the internal control system of an organization's social responsibility program is effective?

A.

Senior management.

B.

Internal audit activity.

C.

All employees.

D.

Board of directors.

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Question # 53

A credit card company detects potential errors in credit card numbers by checking whether all entered numbers contain the correct amount of digits. This is an example of which of the following IT controls?

A.

Logic test.

B.

Check digits.

C.

Data integrity tests.

D.

Balancing control activities.

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Question # 54

Which of the following is most likely to enhance an internal auditor's objectivity?

A.

An auditor is appropriately able to communicate results.

B.

An auditor performs his work free from interference.

C.

An auditor is unrestricted in determination of scope.

D.

An auditor avoids conflicts of interest.

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Question # 55

A government agency maintains a system of internal control, according to the COSO model, and has made a change to its employee performance reviews and rewards program. This change relates to which of the following components of COSO's internal control framework?

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Monitoring activities.

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Question # 56

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently. Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

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Question # 57

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

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Question # 58

According to the COSO internal control framework, which of the following best describes the use of continuous auditing programs by the internal audit activity?

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring.

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Question # 59

The manager for an organization's accounts payable department resigned her post in that capacity. Three months later, she was recruited to the internal audit activity and has been working with the audit team for the last eight months. Which of the following assignments would the newly hired internal auditor be able to execute without any impairments to independence or objectivity?

A.

An operations audit of the accounts payable department.

B.

A consulting engagement related to a new accounts payable optimization initiative.

C.

A review of the employees' sports club finances, which are overseen by the chief audit executive.

D.

An assurance review for a sales program on which she previously provided consultation.

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Question # 60

Management is developing and implementing a risk and control framework for use throughout the organization. Which of the following elements should be included in the organization's control framework?

1. Appropriate levels of authority and responsibility.

2. Supervision of staff and appropriate review of work.

3. The seniority of management in the organization.

4. The ability to trace each transaction to an accountable and responsible individual.

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Question # 61

Which of the following is the most effective control to prevent unauthorized entrance of a former employee of the organization?

A.

Revoking the former employee's biometrics from the entrance systems

B.

Installing security guards who have undergone a background check at all entrances.

C.

Installing multiple high-powered surveillance cameras throughout the organization

D.

Keeping doors locked and accessible with a key that is provided only to employees

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Question # 62

Which of the following IT controls includes protection for mainframe computers and workstations?

A.

Change management controls

B.

Physical and environmental controls.

C.

System software controls

D.

Organization and management controls

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Question # 63

During an audit of the organization's annual financial statements, the internal auditor notes that the current cost of goods sold percentage is substantially higher than in prior years. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this increase?

A.

Cost of raw material inventory items is decreasing.

B.

Process to manufacture goods is more efficient.

C.

Labor productivity to produce goods is increasing.

D.

Write-off of inventory is increasing.

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Question # 64

Which of the following statements is false regarding the internal audit approach when a set of standards other than The IIA's Standards is applicable to a specific engagement?

A.

The internal auditor may cite the use of other standards during audit communications.

B.

If the other standards are government-issued, the internal auditor should apply them in conjunction with The IIA's Standards.

C.

If there are inconsistencies between the other standards and The IIA's Standards, the internal auditor must use the more restrictive standards.

D.

If there are inconsistencies between the other standards and The IIA's Standards, the internal auditor must use the less restrictive standards.

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Question # 65

According to Porter's model of competitive strategy, which of the following is a generic strategy?

1. Differentiation.

2. Competitive advantage.

3. Focused differentiation.

4. Cost focus.

A.

2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 66

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps are most important for an internal auditor to perform when evaluating an organization's social and environmental impact on the local community?

  • Determine whether previous incidents have been reported, managed, and resolved.
  • Determine whether a business contingency plan exists.
  • Determine the extent of transparency in reporting.
  • Determine whether a cost/benefit analysis was performed for all related projects.

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 67

In which type of business environment are price cutting strategies and franchising strategies most appropriate?

A.

Embryonic, focused.

B.

Fragmented, decline.

C.

Mature, fragmented.

D.

Competitive, embryonic.

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Question # 68

Which of the following distinguishes the added-value negotiation method from traditional negotiating methods?

A.

Each party's negotiator presents a menu of options to the other party.

B.

Each party adopts one initial position from which to start.

C.

Each negotiator minimizes the information provided to the other party.

D.

Each negotiator starts with an offer, which is optimal from the negotiator's perspective.

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Question # 69

The most important reason to use risk assessment in audit planning is to:

A.

Identify redundant controls.

B.

Improve budgeting accuracy.

C.

Enhance assurance provided to management.

D.

Assist in developing audit programs.

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Question # 70

Which of the following performance measures would be appropriate for evaluating an investment center, which has responsibility for its revenues, costs, and investment base, but would not be appropriate for evaluating cost, revenue, or profit centers?

A.

A flexible budget.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

A contribution margin income statement by segment.

D.

Residual income.

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Question # 71

The percentage of sales method, rather than the percentage of receivables method, would be used to estimate uncollectible accounts if an organization seeks to:

A.

Use an aging schedule to more closely estimate uncollectible accounts.

B.

Eliminate the need for an allowance for doubtful accounts.

C.

Emphasize the accuracy of the net realizable value of the receivables on the balance sheet.

D.

Use a method that approximates the matching principle.

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Question # 72

A large hospital has an existing contract with a vendor in another country to provide software support and maintenance of the hospital's patient records information system. From the hospital management's perspective, which of the following controls would be most effective to address privacy risks related to this outsourcing arrangement^

A.

Conduct periodic reviews of the privacy policy to ensure that the existing policy meets current legislation requirements in both regions.

B.

Include a "right to audit" clause in the contract and impose detailed security obligations on the outsourced vendor

C.

Implement mandatory privacy training for management to help with identifying privacy risks when outsourcing services

D.

Develop an incident monitoring and response plan to track breaches from internal and external sources

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Question # 73

Operational management in the IT department has introduced performance evaluation policies that are linked to employees achieving continuing education hours. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

A.

Knowledge/skills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure.

D.

Communication failure.

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Question # 74

The economic order quantity for inventory is higher for an organization that has:

A.

Lower annual unit sales.

B.

Higher fixed inventory ordering costs.

C.

Higher annual carrying costs as a percentage of inventory value.

D.

A higher purchase price per unit of inventory.

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Question # 75

What kind of strategy would be most effective for an organization to adopt in order to implement a unique advertising campaign for selling identical product lines across all of its markets?

A.

Export strategy

B.

Transnational strategy.

C.

Multi-domestic strategy

D.

Globalization strategy.

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Question # 76

Which of the following statements is true regarding reversing entries in an accounting cycled

A.

Reversing all previous closing adjustments is a mandatory step in the accounting cycle

B.

Reversing entries should be completed at the end of the next accounting period after recording regular transactions of the period

C.

Reversing entries are identical to the adjusting entries made in the previous period.

D.

Reversing entries are the exact opposite of the adjustments made in the previous period.

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Question # 77

Which of the following methods, if used in conjunction with electronic data interchange (EDI), will improve the organization's cash management program, reduce transaction data input time and errors, and allow the organization to negotiate discounts with EDI vendors based on prompt payment?

A.

Electronic funds transfer.

B.

Knowledge-based systems.

C.

Biometrics.

D.

Standardized graphical user interface.

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Question # 78

If a bank's activities are categorized under such departments as community banking, institutional banking, and agricultural banking, what kind of departmentalization is being utilized?

A.

Product departmentalization.

B.

Process departmentalization.

C.

Functional departmentalization.

D.

Customer departmentalization.

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Question # 79

Which of the following are appropriate reasons for internal auditors to document processes as part of an audit engagement?

1. To determine areas of primary concern.

2. To establish a standard format for process mapping.

3. To define areas of responsibility within the organization.

4. To assess the performance of employees.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 80

Multinational organizations generally spend more time and effort to identify and evaluate:

A.

Internal strengths and weaknesses.

B.

Break-even points.

C.

External trends and events.

D.

Internal risk factors.

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Question # 81

Which of the following is a characteristic of an emerging industry?

A.

Established strategy of players.

B.

Low number of new firms.

C.

High unit costs.

D.

Technical expertise.

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Question # 82

The balanced scorecard approach differs from traditional performance measurement approaches because it adds which of the following measures?

1. Financial measures

2. Internal business process measures.

3. Client satisfaction measures

4. Innovation and learning measures

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

3 and 4 only.

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Question # 83

If a just-in-time purchasing system is successful in reducing the total inventory costs of a manufacturing company, which of the following combinations of cost changes would be most likely to occur?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 84

According to MA guidance on IT. which of the following would be considered a primary control for a spreadsheet to help ensure accurate financial reporting?

A.

Formulas and static data are locked or protected.

B.

The spreadsheet is stored on a network server that is backed up daily.

C.

The purpose and use of the spreadsheet are documented.

D.

Check-in and check-out software is used to control versions.

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Question # 85

When attempting to devise creative solutions to problems, team members initially should do which of the following?

A.

Suspend assumptions and negative feedback

B.

Weight suggestions based on the speaker's level of authority.

C.

Discuss the details of all options presented

D.

Provide documentation to support their positions

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Question # 86

Organizations use matrix management to accomplish which of the following?

A.

To improve the chain of command.

B.

To strengthen corporate headquarters.

C.

To focus better on a single market.

D.

To increase lateral communication.

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Question # 87

Which of the following application controls checks the integrity of data entered into a business application?

A.

Input controls.

B.

Output controls

C.

Processing controls

D.

Integrity controls

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Question # 88

An organization has started allowing employees to use their personal smart devices to accept vendor payments. What should the organization's bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy include to specifically address security and privacy required by the Payment Card Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)?

A.

Approved devices

B.

Mobile applications

C.

Data storage.

D.

Backups and transfers

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Question # 89

Which of the following is an example of a phishing attack?

A.

An employee receives an email that appears to be from the organization's bank, though it is not. The employee replies to the email and sends the requested confidential information.

B.

An organization's website has been hacked. The hacker added political content that is not consistent with the organization's views.

C.

An organization's systems have been compromised by malicious software. The software locks the organization's operating system until d ransom is paid.

D.

An organization's communication systems have been intercepted. A communication session is controlled by an unauthorized third party.

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Question # 90

In an organization where enterprise risk management practices are mature, which of the following is a core internal audit role?

A.

Giving assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.

B.

Developing the risk management strategy for the board's approval.

C.

Facilitating the identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Coaching management in responding to risk.

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