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Question # 4

A hospital uses a lot of mobile equipment for the diagnosis and documentation of patient data What Is the ideal access switch for this large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack?

A.

CX 6300

B.

OCX 6400

C.

OCX 6200

D.

OCX 6100

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Question # 5

Match the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer with its comparable member of the TCP/IP stack. (Options may be used more than once.)

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Question # 6

You are in a meeting with a customer where you are asked to explain the network redundancy feature Multiple Spanning Tree (MSTP). What is the correct statement for this feature?

A.

MSTP configuration ID revision by default as current MSTP root priority

B.

MSTP configuration ID name by default using switch IMC address

C.

MSTP configuration ID name by default using switch serial number

D.

MSTP configuration ID revision by default as switch serial number

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Question # 7

Match the appropriate QoS concept with its definition.

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Question # 8

What is an advantage of using Layer 2 MAC authentication?

A.

MAC allow lists are easily maintained over time.

B.

No setup is required on the client.

C.

It matches user names to MAC address.

D.

MAC identifiers are hard to spoof.

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Question # 9

The customer has a requirement to create authorization policies for their users with Windows 10 clients, with a requirement Tor authorizing both device and user credentials within one Radius session.

What would be the correct solution for the requirement?

A.

ClearPass 6.9 with EAP-TTLS

B.

ClearPass 6.9 with EAP-TLS

C.

ClearPass 6.9 with PEAP

D.

ClearPass 6.9 with EAP-TEAP

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Question # 10

When does the 802.1x authentication process begin when connecting to a secured enterprise mode WLAN?

A.

After the firewall policies are applied to the session

B.

After the client completes 802.11 association

C.

After the captive portal authentication completes

D.

After the WPA 4-Way Handshake is completed

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Question # 11

You have been asked to troubleshoot failed connectivity between a local subnet in the HQ Office and a remote subnet in the Branch Office. PC1 is unable to ping PC2.

Use the provided topology and show command output to identify the reason for the failure:

A.

On Branch Office - L3-SW-2- There is no Layer 3 SVI configured in the correct subnet.

B.

On HQ Office L3-SW-1 - There is no route to the Branch Office.

C.

On HQ Office L3-SW-1 - The switch does not have a static default route to the internet.

D.

On Branch Office L3-SW-2- The switch does not have a static route to the HQ Office Local Subnet.

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Question # 12

Which part of the WPA Key Hierarchy is used to encrypt and/or decrypt data''

A.

Pairwise Temporal Key (PTK)

B.

Pairwise Master Key (PMK)

C.

Key Confirmation Key (KCK)

D.

number used once (nonce)

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Question # 13

What is indicated by a solid amber radio status LED on an Aruba AP?

A.

Not enough PoE is provided from the switch to power both radios of the AP

B.

The radio is working in mesh mode

C.

The radio is working the 5 GHz band only.

D.

The radio is enabled in monitor or spectrum analysis mode

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Question # 14

What is a weakness introduced into the WLAN environment when WPA2-Personal is used for security?

A.

It uses X 509 certificates generated by a Certification Authority

B.

The Pairwise Temporal Key (PTK) is specific to each session

C.

The Pairwise Master Key (PMK) is shared by ail users

D.

It does not use the WPA 4-Way Handshake

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Question # 15

When using the OSPF dynamic routing protocol on an Aruba CX switch, what must match on the neighboring devices to exchange routes?

A.

Hello timers

B.

DR configuration

C.

ECMP method

D.

BDR configuration

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Question # 16

What information is required when using the ClearPass self-service registration page to generate a Multiple Pre-Shared Key (MPSK) for headless devices?

A.

The device's model number

B.

The device's MAC address

C.

The device's IP address

D.

The device's OS type

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Question # 17

A network technician is testing a new SSID for a branch office. They are able to connect, get an IP address, and resolve DNS names. However, they are not able to browse the internet.

On the existing SSID at the branch, connectivity to the internet works as expected on the same VLAN as the new SSID. The wireless client should have received a new role to allow internet access.

What should the network technician verify to ensure both SSIDs function in a similar way?

A.

Verify each SSID's authentication and encryption parameters are enabled and the same.

B.

Verify that the implicit 'deny all' is the last entry in the firewall policies.

C.

Verify the new SSID is broadcasting on all the APs at the branch office.

D.

Verify the firewall policies assigned, making sure the rules are correct and ordered properly.

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Question # 18

When measuring signal strength, dBm is commonly used and 0 dBm corresponds to 1 mW power.

What does -20 dBm correspond to?

A.

.-1 mW

B.

.01 mw

C.

10 mW

D.

1mW

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Question # 19

Where can you set the client's broadcast domain when configuring an ArubaOS firewall role?

A.

WLAN Settings

B.

Bandwidth Controls

C.

Access Control Rules

D.

Role-based VLAN override

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Question # 20

Which commands are used to set a default route to 10.4.5.1 on an Aruba CX switch when ln-band management using an SVl is being used?

A.

iP default-gateway 10.4.5.1

B.

ip route 0 0 0.070 10.4 5.1 vrf mgmt

C.

ip route 0.0 0 0/0 10.4.5.1

D.

default-gateway 10.4.5.1

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Question # 21

What is a common use of LLDP for wireless access points?

A.

testing the quality of the physical link between the access point and the switch

B.

discovery of rogue access points

C.

exchange of RF channel information with nearby access points

D.

negotiation of PoE power level to be provided to the access point

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Question # 22

Describe the purpose of the administrative distance

A.

Routes teamed via external BGP have a higher administrative distance than routes learned via OSPF

B.

The administrative distance is used as a trust rating For route entries

C.

The administrative distance for a static route is 10

D.

The higher administrative distance is preferred

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Question # 23

When using an Aruba standalone AP you select "Native VLAN" for the Client VLAN Assignment In which subnet will the client IPs reside?

A.

The same subnet as the mobility controller

B.

The same subnet as the Aruba ESP gateway

C.

The same subnet as the mobility conductor

D.

The same subnet as the access point

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Question # 24

You need to ensure that voice traffic sent through an ArubaOS-CX switch arrives with minimal latency. What is the best scheduling technology to use for this task?

A.

QoS shaping

B.

Rate limiting

C.

Strict queuing

D.

DWRR queuing

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Question # 25

Which statement is true for a device with a MAC address of B8-31-B5-80-41-4F?

A.

The device OUI is B8-31-B5 and the device NIC serial number is 80-41-4F

B.

The device OUI is B8-31 and the device NIC serial number is B5-80-41-4F

C.

The device OUI is 80-41-4F and the device NIC serial number is B8-31-B5

D.

The device OUI is B8-31-B5 and the device serial number is MD5 hash is 80-41-4F

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Question # 26

A customer has just implemented user and device certificates via a company-wide Group Based Policy (GPO) Which EAP method requires client certificates when authenticating to the network?

A.

EAP-TTLS

B.

EAP-TLS

C.

EAP-TEAP

D.

PEAP

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Question # 27

When using Aruba Central what can identify recommended steps to resolve network health issues and allows you to share detailed information with support personnel?

A.

Overview Dashboard

B.

OAlOps

C.

Alerts and Events

D.

Audit Trail

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Question # 28

You have been asked to onboard a new Aruba 6300M in a customer deployment You are working remotely rather than on-site You have a colleague installing the switch The colleague has provided you with a remote console session to configure the edge switch You have been asked to configure a link aggregation going back to the cores using interfaces 1/1/51 and 1/1/52 The Senior Engineer of the project has asked you to configure the switch and 1Q uplink with these guidelines

1. Add VLAN 20 to the local VLAN database with name Mgmt

2. Add L3 SVl on VLAN 20 for Management using address 10 in the 10.1.1 0/24 subnet 3. Add LAG 1 using LACP mode active for the uplink

4 use vlan 20 as the native vlan on the LAG 5. Make sure the interfaces are all ON.

Which configuration script will achieve the task?

A.

Edge1# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10.1.1.10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan access 20 lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut

B.

Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1.1 10/24 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut vlan trunk native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lag 1 lacp

mode active interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut

C.

Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1 1 10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut

D.

conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt ip address 10 1 1.10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk native 1 vlan trunk allowed all lacp mode active int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing interface lag 1 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut

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Question # 29

A network technician at a branch office is connecting VolP phones to a newly configured AOS-CX switch. Users are complaining that voice quality is not as good as at the corporate office. Further investigation

shows the local-priority value at the branch office is 1 while at the corporate office is 5.

What describes the issue regarding the default QoS behavior on the AOS-CX switch?

A.

The QoS trust is set to DSCP by default, and the VolP phone's local-priority value is mapped to 1.

B.

The QoS trust is set to CoS by default, and the VolP phone's local-priority value is mapped to 1.

C.

The QoS trust is set to none by default, and each VolP phone's local priority is configured for CoS map entry 1.

D.

The QoS trust is set to none by default, and each VolP phone's local priority is configured for CoS map entry 0.

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Question # 30

What describes Clearpass OnGuard? (Select two.)

A.

Onguard assings an unique identity to each device.

B.

It is used for the self-registration of guest devices.

C.

OnGuard is an agent, running on client systems.

D.

OnGuard is doing posture checks on client systems.

E.

It is an intuitive portal for users to securely configure their devices.

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