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Question # 4

Why is it important to ensure that stakeholders raise issues directly with the organization rather than using external pathways?

A.

To afford more flexibility in corrective action and allow the organization to address concerns promptly

B.

To prevent stakeholders from getting a whistleblower reward

C.

To ensure that stakeholders' concerns are hidden from the media

D.

To provide time to fix the identified issue and not have to report it to any stakeholders

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Question # 5

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Question # 6

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

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Question # 7

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Question # 8

What are norms?

A.

Norms are customs, rules, or expectations that a group socially reinforces.

B.

Norms are the typical ways that the business operates.

C.

Norms are the regular employees of an organization as opposed to contractors brought in for unusual (not normal) projects.

D.

Norms are the normal or typical financial targets set by the organization.

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Question # 9

Why is it important for an organization to sense and analyze changes in context within the LEARN component?

A.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management framework

B.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements related to governance and risk management

C.

To ensure that the organization’s financial statements are accurate and up to date

D.

To determine necessary changes to the organization and to understand which changes are significant and which are distractions

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Question # 10

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Question # 11

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

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Question # 12

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

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Question # 13

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

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Question # 14

What are the three main aspects that organizations must face and address while driving toward objectives?

A.

Opportunities (reward), obstacles (risk), and obligations (compliance)

B.

Profitability, liquidity, and solvency

C.

Growth, diversification, and resiliency

D.

Leadership, teamwork, and communication

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Question # 15

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Question # 16

How is the level of assurance determined in relation to objectivity and competence?

A.

The level of assurance is based on the financial performance of the organization being evaluated.

B.

The level of assurance is a function of the assurance objectivity and assurance competence of the assurance provider.

C.

The level of assurance is determined by the number of years of experience of the assurance provider.

D.

The level of assurance is established by the governing authority based on regulatory requirements.

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Question # 17

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Question # 18

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 19

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

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Question # 20

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

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Question # 21

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

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Question # 22

How does the Maturity Model help organizations assess their preparedness to perform practices?

A.

By evaluating the performance of managers and their teams involved in GRC processes

B.

By acting as a tool for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

C.

By helping organizations determine the budget allocation for GRC programs and where to apply resources across the GRC capabilities

D.

By providing a continuum with levels that allow organizations to assess their capability to perform practices, identify areas for improvement, and develop maturity incrementally from one level to the next

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Question # 23

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

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Question # 24

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

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Question # 25

What is the purpose of after-action reviews?

A.

They are used to provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

B.

They are used to ensure the protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters

C.

They uncover root causes of events and help improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

They are used to escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external

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Question # 26

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Question # 27

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

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Question # 28

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

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Question # 29

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Question # 30

What is the end result of the alignment process in the ALIGN component?

A.

The end result of alignment is a detailed budget and financial forecast

B.

The end result of alignment is a comprehensive risk assessment report

C.

The end result of alignment is an integrated plan of action

D.

The end result of alignment is a detailed organizational chart with lines of reporting

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Question # 31

How can inconsistent incentives impact the perception of employees and business partners?

A.

They can reduce the risk of legal disputes

B.

They can lead to perceptions of favoritism and mistrust

C.

They can increase employee motivation and productivity

D.

They can improve the company’s public image

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Question # 32

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

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Question # 33

In the IACM, what are the two types of Proactive Actions & Controls?

A.

Reactive Actions & Controls and Passive Actions & Controls

B.

Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls and Promote/Enable Actions & Controls

C.

Centralized Actions & Controls and Decentralized Actions & Controls

D.

Quantitative Actions & Controls and Qualitative Actions & Controls

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Question # 34

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

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Question # 35

How does the IACM address unfavorable events related to obstacles?

A.

By focusing on opportunities

B.

By decreasing the ultimate likelihood and impact of harm

C.

By implementing a flat organizational structure

D.

By conducting regular employee satisfaction surveys

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Question # 36

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

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Question # 37

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Question # 38

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

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Question # 39

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Question # 40

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the occurrence of an event?

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Cause

D.

Likelihood

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Question # 41

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Question # 42

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

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Question # 43

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

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Question # 44

What is the difference between "inherent effect" and "residual effect" of uncertainty?

A.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of reward

B.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls

C.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of reward

D.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls

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Question # 45

What are some key practices involved in managing policies within an organization?

A.

Having internal audit design standard policy templates to make assessment of their effectiveness easier

B.

Delegating policy management to each unit of the organization so there is a sense of accountability established

C.

Implementing, communicating, enforcing, and auditing policies and related procedures to ensure that they operate as intended and remain relevant

D.

Establishing policy management technology that has pre-populated templates so the organization’s policies meet industry standards

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Question # 46

What are the four dimensions used to assess Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

Quality, Productivity, Flexibility, and Durability

B.

Accuracy, Precision, Speed, and Stability

C.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

D.

Compliance, Consistency, Adaptability, and Robustness

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Question # 47

What is the purpose of mapping objectives to one another?

A.

Mapping objectives is a way to reduce the need for communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

B.

Mapping objectives shows how objectives impact one another and helps allocate resources to achieve the most important objectives and priorities

C.

Mapping objectives is only relevant for financial objectives and has no impact on non-financial objectives

D.

Mapping objectives allows the organization to ignore subordinate-level objectives and focus only on superior-level objectives

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Question # 48

What is the term used to describe the positive, favorable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Obstacle

B.

Enhancement

C.

Profit

D.

Reward

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Question # 49

Why is it important to provide a helpline for the workforce and other stakeholders?

A.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the education program

C.

To develop new content for the education program based on questions asked

D.

To allow them to seek guidance about future conduct, ask general questions, and have the option for anonymity

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Question # 50

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Question # 51

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

A.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

B.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set ofgoals.

C.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

D.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

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Question # 52

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

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Question # 53

What is the significance of “assurance objectivity” in providing a higher level of assurance?

A.

It is only important for high levels of assurance in financial audits

B.

It is not relevant to the level of assurance and does not affect the assurance process

C.

It contributes to a higher level of assurance by enhancing impartiality and credibility

D.

It is determined by the governing authority and enhances the level of assurance

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Question # 54

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be"Lean"?

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

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Question # 55

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Question # 56

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

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Question # 57

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Question # 58

In the LEARN component, what is the difference between external context and internal context?

A.

External context includes the organization's risk management policies, while internal contextincludes its compliance procedures

B.

External context represents the operating environment, while internal context represents capabilities and resources

C.

External context refers to the organization's financial performance, while internal context refers to its governance structure

D.

External context encompasses the organization's mission and vision, while internal context encompasses its values and culture

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Question # 59

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Question # 60

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

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Question # 61

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

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Question # 62

What are the two aspects of value that Protectors are skilled at balancing within an organization?

A.

Value creation and value protection

B.

Value production and value preservation

C.

Value measurement and value analysis

D.

Value assessment and value reporting

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Question # 63

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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