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Question # 4

An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?

A.

Resource contention

B.

Identity spoofing and phishing

C.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

D.

Denial of service

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Question # 5

Which of the following provides an early signal of increasing risk exposures for an organization?

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Risk management policies and procedures

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Capability maturity model integration

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Question # 6

When performing a teaming exercise, which team works to integrate the defensive tactics and controls from the defending team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the attacking team?

A.

Yellow team

B.

Red team

C.

Purple team

D.

Black team

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Question # 7

During which incident response phase is evidence obtained and preserved?

A.

Lessons learned

B.

Containment

C.

Eradication

D.

Recovery

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Question # 8

Which of the following devices is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval?

A.

Mobile devices

B.

Cloud storage devices

C.

Desktop workstation

D.

Printing devices

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Question # 9

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining actions to be taken in the event an intrusion is detected as part of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy?

A.

Level of management involvement

B.

Resources available for the IT security team

C.

Level of risk to the organization's data

D.

Origin of intrusion and attack methods

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Question # 10

Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?

A.

The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.

B.

The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.

C.

The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.

D.

The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.

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Question # 11

Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?

A.

Malware researchers

B.

Hacktivists

C.

Cybercriminals

D.

Script kiddies

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Question # 12

The GREATEST benefit of using the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix is that it provides:

A.

a mapping to multiple control frameworks.

B.

severity rankings for identified deficiencies.

C.

templates of vetted cloud auditing programs.

D.

control specifications prioritized by importance.

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Question # 13

Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?

A.

Command injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Social engineering

D.

Social injection

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Question # 14

In the context of network communications, what are the two types of attack vectors?

A.

Ingress and egress

B.

Physical theft and loss

C.

Insider and privilege misuse

D.

Malware and phishing

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Question # 15

Which of the following is the SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media?

A.

Monthly backup

B.

Full backup

C.

Differential Backup

D.

Incremental backup

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Question # 16

What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?

A.

Evaluation of implementation details

B.

Hands-on testing

C.

Risk-based shakeout

D.

Inventory and discovery

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Question # 17

Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?

A.

Processes are approved by the process owner.

B.

Processes are aligned with industry best practices.

C.

Processes are centralized and standardized.

D.

Processes are updated and documented annually.

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Question # 18

Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?

A.

Adversarial threat event

B.

Exfiltration attack vector

C.

Infiltration attack vector

D.

Kill chain modeling

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Question # 19

Which of the following costs are typically covered by cybersecurity insurance?

A.

Forensic investigation

B.

Threat intelligence feed

C.

SIEM implementation

D.

Reputational loss

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Question # 20

Which of the following is a passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization?

A.

Using open source discovery

B.

Scanning the network perimeter

C.

Social engineering

D.

Crafting counterfeit websites

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Question # 21

Which of the following mobile computing trends should cause the GREATEST concern for an organization that needs to protect sensitive organizational data?

A.

Fluctuating size of form factors for mobile devices

B.

Increasing amount of storage space available on mobile devices

C.

Expanding availability of mobile network coverage

D.

Growing consumer demand for advanced mobile technologies

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Question # 22

A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective, which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?

A.

Cybersecurity risk assessment methodology

B.

Encryption algorithms used to encrypt the data

C.

Incident escalation procedures

D.

Physical location of the data

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Question # 23

Which of the following provides additional protection other than encryption to messages transmitted using portable wireless devices?

A.

Endpoint protection

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Virtual private network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

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Question # 24

Which of the following is a feature of a stateful inspection firewall?

A.

It tracks the destination IP address of each packet that leaves the organization's internal network.

B.

It is capable of detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks

C.

It prevents any attack initiated and originated by an insider.

D.

It translates the MAC address to the destination IP address of each packet that enters the organization's internal network.

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Question # 25

The second line of defense in cybersecurity includes:

A.

conducting organization-wide control self-assessments.

B.

risk management monitoring, and measurement of controls.

C.

separate reporting to the audit committee within the organization.

D.

performing attack and breach penetration testing.

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Question # 26

Which of the following controls BEST prevents users from intentionally or unintentionally accessing data they are not authorized to view?

A.

Least privilege

B.

Information security policy

C.

Encryption

D.

Passwords

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Question # 27

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of system hardening?

A.

To enforce the principle of least privilege

B.

To create a security-conscious environment

C.

To reduce vulnerability by limiting attack vectors

D.

To protect the system from all possible threats

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Question # 28

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to help mitigate cybersecurity risks related to outsourcing a key business function?

A.

Monitoring service provider performance

B.

Prohibiting the service provider from sub-contracting

C.

Requiring the service provider to purchase insurance

D.

Including a cybersecurity clause in the contract

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Question # 29

Which of the following is commonly referred to as a Wi-Fi hot-spot?

A.

Local area network (LAN)

B.

Wireless local area network (WLAN)

C.

Wireless personal area network (WPAN)

D.

Wide area network (WAN)

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Question # 30

Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing:

A.

data in use.

B.

data redundancy.

C.

data availability.

D.

data at rest.

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Question # 31

A cybersecurity audit reveals that an organization's risk management function has the right to overrule business management decisions. Would the IS auditor find this arrangement acceptable?

A.

No, because the risk management function should be the body that makes risk-related decisions for the organization.

B.

Yes, because the second line of defense is generally on a higher organizational level than the first line.

C.

No, because the risk management's oversight function would potentially lose its ability to objectively monitor and measure the business.

D.

Yes, because this arrangement ensures adequate oversight and enforcement of risk management in the organization.

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Question # 32

Why are security frameworks an important part of a cybersecurity strategy?

A.

They serve to integrate and guide activities.

B.

They contain the necessary policies and standards.

C.

They provide protection to the organization.

D.

They are required for regulatory compliance.

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Question # 33

When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?

A.

Privileged users

B.

Database administrators

C.

Terminated employees

D.

Contractors

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Question # 34

What should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when an organization's virtual private network (VPN) is implemented on employees' personal mobile devices?

A.

Users may access services over the VPN that are network resource intensive.

B.

Users may store the data in plain text on their mobile devices.

C.

Users may access the corporate network from unauthorized devices.

D.

Users may access services not supported by the VPN.

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Question # 35

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization?

A.

Fortified demilitarized zone

B.

Software defined perimeter

C.

Layer 3 virtual private network

D.

Virtual local area network

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Question # 36

Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

A.

Limited evidence on intrusive activity

B.

Application-level vulnerabilities

C.

Lack of Interface with system tools

D.

Weak passwords for the administration console

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the MOST relevant type of audit to conduct when fraud has been detected following an incident?

A.

Cybersecurity audit

B.

Financial audit

C.

Forensics audit

D.

Cyber insurance audit

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Question # 38

Which of the following cloud characteristics describes computing capabilities that can be provisioned without human interaction from the service provider?

A.

On-demand self-service

B.

Measured service

C.

Broad network access

D.

Agile service management

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Question # 39

Which of the following is a known potential risk of using a software defined perimeter (SDP) controller?

A.

Unauthorized access may jeopardize data confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

B.

Operations may be adversely affected if data cannot be recovered and restored timely.

C.

Unauthorized use of valid credentials may compromise encrypted data at rest.

D.

An ineffective firewall may fail to identify and block unwanted network traffic.

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Question # 40

Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?

A.

Frameworks

B.

Guidelines

C.

Basedine

D.

Standards

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