Which example BEST represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control?
Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance
Datacenters; telecom rooms; security operations centers; loading docks
Telecom rooms; parking garage; security operations centers; exterior building entrance
Exterior building entrance; datacenters; telecom rooms; printer rooms
Restrictive areas are those that contain sensitive or critical assets, systems, or information that require additional protection from unauthorized access or tampering. Access control is the process of granting or denying access to these areas based on predefined policies, rules, and criteria. An additional authentication factor is a method of verifying the identity or authorization of a user or device that is used in conjunction with another factor, such as a password, a token, or a biometric feature. Additional authentication factors enhance the security and reliability of access control by reducing the risk of impersonation, compromise, or theft of credentials.
The example that best represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control is A. Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance. These areas contain vital infrastructure, equipment, and data that are essential for the organization’s operations, performance, and security. Unauthorized access to these areas could result in significant damage, disruption, or loss of data, services, or resources. Therefore, these areas should be protected by multiple layers of access control, including physical and logical barriers, as well as additional authentication factors, such as smart cards, biometrics, or one-time passwords.
The other examples are less likely to represent the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control, because they either contain less sensitive or critical assets, systems, or information, or they are more accessible or visible to the public or other authorized users. For example:
References:
Which approach for managing end-user device security is typically used for lost or stolen company-owned devices?
Remotely enable lost mode status on the device
Deletion of data after a pre-defined number of failed login attempts
Enterprise wipe of all company data and contacts
Remote wipe of the device and restore to factory settings
Remote wipe is a security feature that allows an administrator or a user to remotely erase all the data and settings on a device in case it is lost or stolen. This prevents unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of data breaches. Remote wipe is typically used for company-owned devices, as it ensures that no company data remains on the device after it is lost or stolen. Remote wipe also restores the device to its factory settings, making it unusable for the thief or finder. Remote wipe can be performed through various methods, such as using a mobile device management (MDM) solution, a cloud service, or a built-in feature of the device’s operating system. References:
Which activity BEST describes conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor?
Accepting a service providers self-assessment questionnaire responses
Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities
Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s)
Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference
Due diligence is the process of evaluating the risks and opportunities associated with a potential or existing third-party vendor. Due diligence can vary in scope and depth depending on the level of risk that the vendor poses to the organization. Lower risk vendors are those that have minimal impact on the organization’s operations, reputation, or compliance, and that do not handle sensitive or confidential data or systems. For lower risk vendors, conducting due diligence may involve accepting the service provider’s self-assessment questionnaire responses as sufficient evidence of their capabilities, performance, and compliance. A self-assessment questionnaire is a tool that allows the vendor to provide information about their organization, services, processes, controls, and policies. The organization can use the questionnaire to verify the vendor’s identity, qualifications, references, and certifications, and to assess the vendor’s alignment with the organization’s standards and expectations. Accepting the vendor’s self-assessment questionnaire responses as the primary source of due diligence can save time and resources for the organization, and can also demonstrate trust and confidence in the vendor. However, the organization should also ensure that the questionnaire is comprehensive, relevant, and updated, and that the vendor’s responses are accurate, complete, and consistent. The organization should also reserve the right to request additional information or documentation from the vendor if needed, and to conduct periodic reviews or audits of the vendor’s performance and compliance.
The other options do not best describe conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor, because they either involve more extensive or rigorous methods of due diligence, or they are not directly related to due diligence. Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities is an important part of monitoring and managing the vendor relationship, but it is not a due diligence activity per se. Reviewing a service provider’s self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s) is a more thorough way of conducting due diligence, but it may not be necessary or feasible for lower risk vendors, especially if the external audit report(s) are not readily available or relevant. Requesting and filing a service provider’s external audit report(s) for future reference is a good practice for maintaining documentation and evidence of due diligence, but it is not a due diligence activity itself.
References:
Which statement does NOT reflect current practice in addressing fourth party risk or subcontracting risk?
Third party contracts and agreements should require prior notice and approval for subcontracting
Outsourcers should rely on requesting and reviewing external audit reports to address subcontracting risk
Outsourcers should inspect the vendor's TPRM program and require evidence of the assessments of subcontractors
Third party contracts should include capturing, maintaining, and tracking authorized subcontractors
This statement does not reflect current practice in addressing fourth party risk or subcontracting risk because it is not sufficient to rely on external audit reports alone. Outsourcers should also perform their own due diligence and monitoring of the subcontractors, as well as ensure that the third party has a robust TPRM program in place. External audit reports may not cover all the relevant aspects of subcontracting risk, such as data security, compliance, performance, and quality. Moreover, external audit reports may not be timely, accurate, or consistent, and may not reflect the current state of the subcontractor’s operations. Therefore, outsourcers should adopt a more proactive and comprehensive approach to managing subcontracting risk, rather than relying on external audit reports. References:
Which of the following statements is FALSE about Data Loss Prevention Programs?
DLP programs include the policy, tool configuration requirements, and processes for the identification, blocking or monitoring of data
DLP programs define the consequences for non-compliance to policies
DLP programs define the required policies based on default tool configuration
DLP programs include acknowledgement the company can apply controls to remove any data
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs are not based on default tool configuration, but on the specific needs and risks of the organization. DLP programs should be tailored to the data types, locations, flows, and users that are relevant to the business. DLP programs should also align with the regulatory and contractual obligations, as well as the data risk appetite, of the organization. Default tool configuration may not adequately address these factors and may result in either over-blocking or under-protecting data. Therefore, statement C is false about DLP programs. References:
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to trigger notification obligations in incident response?
Regulatory requirements
Data classification or sensitivity
Encryption of data
Contractual terms
Notification obligations in incident response are the legal or contractual duties to inform relevant parties about a security breach or incident that affects their data or systems. These obligations may vary depending on the type, scope, and impact of the incident, as well as the jurisdiction, industry, and contractual agreements involved. The factors that are most likely to trigger notification obligations are:
The factor that is least likely to trigger notification obligations is:
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An IT change management approval process includes all of the following components EXCEPT:
Application version control standards for software release updates
Documented audit trail for all emergency changes
Defined roles between business and IT functions
Guidelines that restrict approval of changes to only authorized personnel
Application version control standards for software release updates are not part of the IT change management approval process, but rather a technical aspect of the software development lifecycle. The IT change management approval process is a formal and structured way of evaluating, authorizing and scheduling changes to IT systems and infrastructure, based on predefined criteria and roles. The IT change management approval process typically includes the following components123:
Which factor is the LEAST important attribute when classifying personal data?
The volume of data records processed or retained
The data subject category that identifies the data owner
The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual
The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information
According to the GDPR, personal data is any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (data subject). The GDPR does not consider the volume of data records as a relevant factor for classifying personal data, but rather the nature and context of the data. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to apply appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk of processing personal data, taking into account factors such as the state of the art, the costs of implementation, the nature, scope, context and purposes of processing, and the risks of varying likelihood and severity for the rights and freedoms of natural persons. Therefore, the volume of data records is not a decisive attribute for classifying personal data, but rather an indicator of the potential impact of a data breach or misuse.
The other factors listed in the question are more important attributes for classifying personal data, as they relate to the identification, protection, and rights of the data subjects. The data subject category that identifies the data owner refers to the type of natural person whose personal data is processed, such as customers, employees, patients, students, etc. This factor is important for determining the purpose and legal basis of processing, as well as the data subject’s rights and expectations1. The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual refers to the degree of harm or discrimination that could result from the disclosure or misuse of such data, such as racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, trade union membership, genetic or biometric data, health data, sex life or sexual orientation, or criminal convictions or offenses2. The GDPR imposes stricter rules and obligations for the processing of such special categories of personal data, as they pose a higher risk to the data subject’s fundamental rights and freedoms. The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information refers to the degree of access and disclosure that is permitted or required for the personal data, depending on the data subject’s consent, the legitimate interests of the data controller or processor, or the applicable laws and regulations1. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to implement data protection by design and by default, meaning that they should only process the personal data that is necessary for the specific purpose and limit the access to those who need to know.
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When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?
Logging of remote access authentication attempts
Limiting access by job role of business justification
Monitoring device activity usage volumes
Requiring application whitelisting
Application whitelisting is a security technique that allows only authorized applications to run on a device or network, preventing malware or unauthorized software from executing. While this can be a useful security measure, it is not directly related to remote access risk evaluation, which focuses on the security of the connection and the access rights of the remote users. The other options are more relevant to remote access risk evaluation, as they help to monitor, control, and audit the remote access activities and prevent unauthorized or malicious access. References:
An IT asset management program should include all of the following components EXCEPT:
Maintaining inventories of systems, connections, and software applications
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications
Tracking and monitoring availability of vendor updates and any timelines for end of support
Identifying and tracking adherence to IT asset end-of-life policy
An IT asset management program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization manage its IT assets throughout their lifecycle, from acquisition to disposal. An IT asset management program should include the following components1234:
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications is not a component of an IT asset management program, but rather a component of an application development and security program. An application development and security program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization design, develop, test, deploy, and maintain secure and reliable applications, whether they are internally developed or acquired from external sources. An application development and security program should include the following components5 :
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Tracking breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts is an example of which continuous monitoring technique?
Monitoring surface
Vulnerabilities
Passive and active indicators of compromise
Business intelligence
Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on the performance and security of third-party vendors on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring helps to identify and mitigate potential risks, such as data breaches, credential exposures, insider fraud/theft, and other cyber incidents, that may affect the organization and its customers. Continuous monitoring can use various techniques, such as monitoring surface, vulnerabilities, passive and active indicators of compromise, and business intelligence.
Passive and active indicators of compromise are examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track the signs of malicious activity or compromise on the third-party vendor’s systems or networks. Passive indicators of compromise are data sources that do not require direct interaction with the target, such as threat intelligence feeds, dark web monitoring, or external scanning. Active indicators of compromise are data sources that require direct interaction with the target, such as penetration testing, malware analysis, or incident response. Both passive and active indicators of compromise can provide valuable information on the current state and potential threats of the third-party vendor’s environment.
The other options are not examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts. Monitoring surface is a technique that measures the size and complexity of the third-party vendor’s attack surface, such as the number and type of internet-facing assets, domains, and services. Vulnerabilities are a technique that identifies the weaknesses or flaws in the third-party vendor’s systems or applications that can be exploited by attackers, such as outdated software, misconfigurations, or unpatched bugs. Business intelligence is a technique that analyzes the business performance and reputation of the third-party vendor, such as financial stability, customer satisfaction, or regulatory compliance. References:
Which of the following is NOT an attribute in the vendor inventory used to assign risk rating and vendor classification?
Type of data accessed, processed, or retained
Type of systems accessed
Type of contract addendum
Type of network connectivity
Vendor inventory is a list of all the third-party vendors that an organization engages with, along with relevant information about their products, services, contracts, and risks. Vendor inventory is a crucial tool for vendor risk management, as it helps an organization identify, assess, monitor, and mitigate the potential risks associated with its vendors. Vendor inventory also helps an organization prioritize its vendor oversight activities, allocate its resources efficiently, and comply with its regulatory obligations12.
One of the key steps in creating and maintaining a vendor inventory is to assign a risk rating and a vendor classification to each vendor, based on various attributes that reflect the level of risk and criticality they pose to the organization. The risk rating and vendor classification help an organization determine the frequency and depth of its vendor due diligence, review, and audit processes, as well as the appropriate controls and remediation actions to implement3 .
Some of the common attributes used to assign risk rating and vendor classification are :
The type of contract addendum is NOT an attribute used to assign risk rating and vendor classification, as it is not directly related to the risk or criticality of the vendor. The type of contract addendum is a legal document that modifies or supplements the original contract between the vendor and the organization, such as adding or deleting terms, clauses, or provisions. The type of contract addendum may reflect the changes or updates in the vendor relationship, such as scope, duration, price, service level, etc., but it does not indicate the level of risk or impact that the vendor has on the organization. Therefore, the type of contract addendum is not a relevant factor for vendor risk assessment and management . References:
Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?
To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed
To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements
To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings
To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results
The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization’s stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program. This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization’s policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics. References:
Which statement BEST describes the methods of performing due diligence during third party risk assessments?
Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour
Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans
interviewing subject matter experts or control owners, reviewing compliance artifacts, and validating controls
Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract
Performing due diligence during third party risk assessments is a process of verifying and validating the information provided by the third parties, as well as identifying and assessing any potential risks or issues that may arise from the relationship. Due diligence methods may vary depending on the type, scope, and complexity of the third party engagement, but they generally involve the following steps123:
The other options are not as comprehensive or accurate as the methods described above, as they may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the third party risk assessment, or they may rely on incomplete or outdated information. Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour is only one part of the validation method, and it may not be applicable or feasible for all types of third parties, such as cloud service providers or remote workers. Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans is more of a follow-up or monitoring activity, rather than a due diligence method, as it assumes that the questionnaire has already been completed and analyzed. Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract is a narrow and limited approach, as it may not capture the full scope or complexity of the third party relationship, or the dynamic and evolving nature of the risks or issues involved. References:
Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?
The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment
The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit
The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls
A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location
The Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) is the part of the network that stores, processes, or transmits cardholder data or sensitive authentication data, as well as any connected or security-impacting systems123. The CDE is subject to the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), which is a set of requirements and guidelines for ensuring the security and compliance of payment card transactions123. The PCI DSS defines various artifacts that are reviewed when assessing the CDE, such as:
References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
Which of the following statements BEST represent the relationship between incident response and incident notification plans?
Cybersecurity incident response programs have the same scope and objectives as privacy incident notification procedures
All privacy and security incidents should be treated alike until analysis is performed to quantify the number of records impacted
Security incident response management is only included in crisis communication for externally reported events
A security incident may become a security breach based upon analysis and trigger the organization's incident notification or crisis communication process
Incident response and incident notification are two related but distinct processes that organizations should follow when dealing with security incidents. Incident response is the process of identifying, containing, analyzing, eradicating, and recovering from security incidents, while incident notification is the process of communicating the relevant information about the incident to the appropriate internal and external stakeholders, such as senior management, regulators, customers, and media12.
Not all security incidents are security breaches, which are defined as unauthorized access to or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information that could result in harm to the organization or individuals3. A security incident may become a security breach based on the analysis of the impact, scope, and severity of the incident, as well as the applicable legal and regulatory requirements. When a security breach is confirmed or suspected, the organization should trigger its incident notification or crisis communication process, which should include the following elements:
Incident notification and communication are critical for managing the reputation, trust, and compliance of the organization, as well as for mitigating the potential legal, financial, and operational consequences of a security breach. References:
Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?
Function as a service
Platform as a service
Software as a service
Infrastructure as a service
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as servers, storage, and network devices. Users can install and run their own operating systems and applications on the cloud infrastructure, and have full control over the configuration and management of the hardware equipment. IaaS is suitable for organizations that need high scalability, flexibility, and customization of their cloud environment. IaaS is different from other cloud deployment models, such as function as a service (FaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS), which provide users with higher-level services and abstract away the underlying hardware details. References:
Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?
A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices
Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities
Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous
A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production
Security vulnerabilities and security defects are not synonymous, but rather different concepts that relate to the security of software products or services. A security vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the software that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or data12. A security defect is a mistake or error in the software code that causes the software to behave in an unexpected or incorrect way34. A security defect may or may not lead to a security vulnerability, depending on the context and impact of the defect. For example, a security defect that causes a buffer overflow may result in a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code on the system. However, a security defect that causes a spelling error in the user interface may not pose a security risk at all.
Security vulnerabilities and security defects have different causes, consequences, and solutions. Security vulnerabilities are often caused by design flaws, logic errors, or insufficient security controls in the software12. Security defects are often caused by poor coding practices, lack of testing, or human mistakes in the software development process34. Security vulnerabilities can have severe consequences for the software users, providers, and stakeholders, such as data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or sabotage12. Security defects can have various consequences for the software functionality, performance, or usability, such as crashes, glitches, or bugs34. Security vulnerabilities require proactive and reactive measures to prevent, detect, and mitigate the potential attacks, such as security testing, patching, monitoring, and incident response12. Security defects require corrective and preventive measures to identify, resolve, and avoid the errors, such as code review, debugging, refactoring, and quality assurance34.
Therefore, the statement that security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous is FALSE. They are distinct but related aspects of software security that require different approaches and techniques to address them. References: 1: What is a Software Vulnerability? | Veracode 2: Software Security: differences between vulnerabilities and Defects 3: What is a Software Defect? - Definition from Techopedia 4: Are vulnerabilities discovered and resolved like other defects? - Springer
A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:
Limitation of liability
Cyber Insurance
Force majeure
Mutual indemnification
Indemnification is a contractual obligation by which one party agrees to compensate another party for any losses or damages that may arise from a specified event or circumstance. Mutual indemnification means that both parties agree to indemnify each other for certain losses or damages, such as those caused by a breach of contract, negligence, or violation of law. Mutual indemnification can enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can provide a mechanism for allocating the responsibility and liability for any security incidents or breaches that may affect either party or their customers. Mutual indemnification can also incentivize each party to maintain adequate security controls and practices, as well as to cooperate and communicate effectively in the event of a security incident or breach.
The other options are not contract clauses that enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, because:
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In which phase of the TPRM lifecycle should terms for return or destruction of data be defined and agreed upon?
During contract negotiation
At third party selection and initial due diligence
When deploying ongoing monitoring
At termination and exit
Terms for return or destruction of data should be defined and agreed upon during contract negotiation, as this is the phase where the organization and the third party establish the expectations, obligations, and responsibilities for the relationship, including the handling of data. According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, contract negotiation is the phase where "the organization and the third party negotiate and execute a contract that clearly defines the expectations and responsibilities of both parties, including the scope of work, service level agreements, performance measures, reporting requirements, compliance obligations, security and privacy controls, incident response procedures, dispute resolution mechanisms, termination rights, and other relevant terms and conditions."1 One of the key contractual terms that should be addressed is the return or destruction of data, which specifies how the third party will return or dispose of the organization’s data at the end of the relationship, or upon request, in a secure and timely manner. This term is important for ensuring the organization’s data protection, confidentiality, and compliance, as well as reducing the risk of data breaches, leaks, or misuse by the third party or unauthorized parties.
The other phases of the TPRM lifecycle are not the best choices for defining and agreeing upon terms for return or destruction of data, because:
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Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?
Data masking
Data encryption
Data anonymization
Data compression
Data anonymization is the process of removing or altering any information that can be used to identify an individual from a data set. This technique provides the strongest assurance that data does not identify an individual, as it makes it impossible or extremely difficult to link the data back to the original source. Data anonymization can be achieved by various methods, such as generalization, suppression, perturbation, or pseudonymization12. Data anonymization is often used for privacy protection, compliance with data protection regulations, and data sharing purposes3. References:
Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?
Infrastructure as a Service
Software as a Service
Function a3 a Service
Platform as a Service
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to software applications over the internet, without requiring them to install, maintain, or update the software on their own devices. SaaS is primarily focused on the application layer, as it delivers the complete functionality of the software to the end users, while abstracting away the underlying infrastructure, platform, and middleware layers. SaaS providers are responsible for managing the servers, databases, networks, security, and scalability of the software, as well as ensuring its availability, performance, and compliance. SaaS users only pay for the software usage, usually on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, and can access the software from any device and location, as long as they have an internet connection. Some examples of SaaS applications are Gmail, Salesforce, Dropbox, and Netflix. References:
Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?
Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively
Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence
Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening
Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk
This statement is false because assessing risk impact does not require an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends. These factors are relevant for assessing risk likelihood or probability, not impact. Risk impact is the potential consequence or damage that a risk event may cause to the organization or its stakeholders. Risk impact can be measured qualitatively (e.g., high, medium, low) or quantitatively (e.g., monetary value, percentage of revenue, number of customers affected). To assess risk impact, the organization needs to consider the nature and scope of the risk, the potential harm or loss, and the sensitivity or tolerance of the organization or its stakeholders to the risk. References:
Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?
The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations
Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control
Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle
Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework
The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is not necessarily defined by regulatory obligations, but rather by the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as the changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, and controls. Regulatory obligations may provide some guidance or minimum requirements for vendor reassessment, but they are not the sole determinant of the reassessment frequency. According to the Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."1 Similarly, the CTPRP Study Guide states, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor’s environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."2
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Which cloud deployment model is primarily used for load balancing?
Public Cloud
Community Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Private Cloud
Hybrid cloud is the cloud deployment model that is primarily used for load balancing. Load balancing is the process of distributing workloads and network traffic across multiple servers or resources to optimize performance, reliability, and scalability1. Load balancing can help prevent overloading or underutilizing any single server or resource, as well as improve fault tolerance and availability. Hybrid cloud is a mix of two or more different deployment models, such as public cloud, private cloud, or community cloud2. Hybrid cloud allows organizations to leverage the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as cost efficiency, scalability, security, and control3. Hybrid cloud can also enable load balancing across different cloud environments, depending on the demand, cost, and performance requirements of each workload. For example, an organization can use a private cloud for sensitive or mission-critical applications that require high security and performance, and a public cloud for less sensitive or variable applications that require more scalability and flexibility. By using a hybrid cloud, the organization can balance the load between the private and public clouds, and optimize the resource utilization and cost efficiency of each cloud.
The other cloud deployment models are not primarily used for load balancing, although they may have some load balancing capabilities within their own environments. Public cloud is the infrastructure that is shared by multiple tenants and open to the public. Anyone can use the public cloud by subscribing to it. Public cloud offers high scalability, elasticity, and cost-effectiveness, but may have lower security, privacy, and control than private cloud2. Community cloud is the infrastructure that is shared by similar consumers who collaborate to set up a cloud for their exclusive use. For example, government organizations can form a cloud for their exclusive use. Community cloud offers some benefits of both public and private clouds, such as shared costs, common standards, and enhanced security, but may have lower scalability and flexibility than public cloud2. Private cloud is the infrastructure that is for the exclusive use of a single organization. The cloud may or may not be operated by the organization. Private cloud offers high security, privacy, and control, but may have lower scalability, elasticity, and cost-effectiveness than public cloud2. References:
You are updating program requirements due to shift in use of technologies by vendors to enable hybrid work. Which statement is LEAST likely to represent components of an Asset
Management Program?
Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data
Each asset should include an organizational owner who is responsible for the asset throughout its life cycle
Assets should be classified based on criticality or data sensitivity
Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines
Asset management is the process of identifying, tracking, and managing the physical and digital assets of an organization. An asset management program is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that help to ensure the optimal use, security, and disposal of assets. According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide1, an asset management program should include the following components:
The statement that is least likely to represent a component of an asset management program is D. Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines. This statement describes a supply chain management function, not an asset management function. Supply chain management is the process of planning, coordinating, and controlling the flow of materials, information, and services from suppliers to customers. Supply chain management may involve some aspects of asset management, such as inventory control, quality assurance, or vendor risk management, but it is not the same as asset management . Asset management focuses on the assets that the organization owns or uses, not the assets that the organization produces or delivers.
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Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior “notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence
inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment
Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in “order to move the processing back to an approved country
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor’s non-compliance on the company’s reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company’s policy, or rely on the vendor’s self-assessment without verification. References:
Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?
Reviewing the entity's image snapshot approval and management process
Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports
Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities
Conducting customer performed penetration tests
A cloud hosting vendor assessment program is a process of evaluating the security, compliance, and performance of a cloud service provider (CSP) that hosts an organization’s data or applications. A cloud hosting vendor assessment program typically includes the following components123:
The component that is typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program is conducting customer performed penetration tests. Penetration testing is a method of simulating a cyberattack on a system or network to identify and exploit vulnerabilities and weaknesses. While penetration testing can be a valuable tool to assess the security posture of a CSP, it is not usually included in a cloud hosting vendor assessment program for the following reasons :
Therefore, the verified answer to the question is D. Conducting customer performed penetration tests.
References:
Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?
A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies “can voluntarily choose to follow standards.
There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact
Standards are always a subset of a regulation
A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary.
A regulation is a rule of order having the force of law, prescribed by a superior or competent authority, relating to the actions of those under the authority’s control. Regulations are issued by various government departments and agencies to carry out the intent of legislation enacted by the legislature of the applicable jurisdiction. Regulations also function to ensure uniform application of the law. A standard is a guideline established generally by private-sector bodies and that are available for use by any person or organization, private or government. The term includes what are commonly referred to as ‘industry standards’ as well as ‘consensus standards’. Standards are developed through a voluntary process of collaboration and consensus among stakeholders, such as manufacturers, consumers, regulators, and experts. Standards may reflect best practices, technical specifications, performance criteria, or quality requirements. Standards do not have the force of law unless they are adopted or referenced by a regulation. Therefore, a regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies can voluntarily choose to follow standards that are relevant and beneficial to their operations, products, or services. References:
You are assessing your organization's Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (BR/BCP) requirements based on the shift to remote work. Which statement is LEAST reflective of current practices in business resiliency?
Third party service providers should be included in the company’s exercise and testing program based on the criticality of the outsourced business function
The right to require participation in testing with third party service providers should be included in the contract
The contract is the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP since both programs were triggered by the pandemic
Management should request and receive artifacts that Gemonstrate successful test results and any remediation action plans
The contract is not the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP, nor are both programs necessarily triggered by the pandemic. According to the Shared Assessments Program, third party risk management (TPRM) is a continuous process that requires ongoing monitoring and assessment of third parties’ performance, compliance, and resilience. Therefore, the contract should be complemented by other controls, such as due diligence, audits, reviews, and reporting, to ensure that third parties meet the organization’s expectations and standards for DR/BCP. Moreover, DR/BCP are not only relevant for pandemic scenarios, but also for other types of disasters, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, power outages, or human errors. Therefore, the contract should reflect the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance for different types of disruptions and scenarios, and not be limited to pandemic-related events.
When measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, which example is MOST likely to provide meaningful metrics?
logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards
Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion
Calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions
Tracking the number of outstanding findings
One of the key objectives of a TPRM program is to identify and mitigate the risks posed by third parties throughout the relationship life cycle. Therefore, measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program requires tracking the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and activities. Among the four examples given, calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions is the most likely to provide meaningful metrics for this purpose. This metric indicates how quickly and consistently the organization and its third parties can resolve the issues and gaps that are discovered during the risk assessment and monitoring phases. It also reflects the level of collaboration and communication between the parties, as well as the alignment of expectations and standards. A lower average time to remediate implies a higher operational performance of the TPRM program, as it demonstrates a proactive and responsive approach to risk management12.
The other three examples are less likely to provide meaningful metrics for measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, as they do not directly measure the outcomes or impacts of the risk management activities. Logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards may indicate the level of compliance and consistency of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the exceptions are handled or justified. Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion may indicate the level of effort and resource allocation of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the tasks and plans contribute to the risk reduction or mitigation. Tracking the number of outstanding findings may indicate the level of exposure and vulnerability of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the findings are prioritized or addressed. References:
Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?
Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties
Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)
Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements
Change at outsourcer due to M&A
This answer is correct because a change at outsourcer due to merger and acquisition (M&A) is the least likely indicator to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor. This is because the outsourcer is not the direct vendor of the organization, but rather a third party that the vendor uses to perform some of its services. Therefore, the impact of the change at the outsourcer on the vendor’s performance and risk level may not be significant or immediate. However, the other indicators (A, B, and C) are more likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor, as they directly affect the vendor’s operations, capabilities, and compliance status. For example:
Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?
Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight
Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management
Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes
Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework
An enterprise information security policy (EISP) is a management-level document that details the organization’s philosophy, objectives, and expectations regarding information security. It sets the direction, scope, and tone for all security efforts and provides a framework for developing and implementing security programs and controls. According to the web search results from the search_web tool, some of the key elements of an EISP are:
However, option C, a statement that security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes, is not an accurate reflection of an organization’s requirements within an EISP. While technology changes may affect the security environment and the threats and vulnerabilities that the organization faces, they are not the only factor that determines the need for changing security policies. Other factors, such as business changes, legal changes, risk changes, audit findings, incident reports, and best practices, may also trigger the need for reviewing and updating security policies. Therefore, option C is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect an organization’s requirements within an EISP. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which
of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to
approve remediation plans:
CISO/CIO
Business Unit Relationship Owner
internal Audit
C&O
According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, the business unit relationship owner is the primary point of contact for the third party and is responsible for ensuring that the third party meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The business unit relationship owner is also involved in the third party risk assessment process and the remediation plan approval. Therefore, a meeting should be scheduled with the business unit relationship owner before sharing the findings and remediation plans with the third party, as they have the authority and accountability to approve or reject the plans. The other options are not necessarily involved in the remediation plan approval, although they may have other roles in the third party risk management lifecycle. References: