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Question # 4

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

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Question # 5

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Question # 6

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Question # 7

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Question # 8

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Question # 9

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Question # 10

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Question # 11

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Question # 12

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[II]. Expected result

[III]. Actual result

[IV]. Test level

[V]. Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?

A.

[I]and [IV]

B.

[II]and [III]

C.

[II]. [Ill] and [V]

D.

[I]. [IV] and [V]

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Question # 13

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Question # 14

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Question # 15

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Question # 16

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 17

A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

A.

test design

B.

test analysis

C.

test implementation

D.

test monitoring and control

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Question # 18

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

A.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

B.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

C.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

D.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

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Question # 19

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Question # 20

Given some statements about independence of testing

i.Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii.Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii.Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv.Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

A.

ii and iv

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Question # 21

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Question # 22

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Question # 23

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

A.

test execution

B.

test design

C.

test analysis

D.

test planning

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Question # 24

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Question # 25

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Question # 26

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 27

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Question # 28

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Question # 29

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

A.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

B.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.

C.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

D.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

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Question # 30

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Question # 31

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Question # 32

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

A.

Containerization tool

B.

Fault seeding tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Question # 33

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

C.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

D.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

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Question # 34

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

D.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

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Question # 35

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

A.

Reproducing the failure

B.

Adding new test cases

C.

Fixing the cause

D.

Diagnosing the root cause

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Question # 36

Which of the following IS the BEST example of whole team approach

A.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

D.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

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Question # 37

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Question # 38

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

A.

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

B.

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

C.

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/Then format and tests are then written and run

D.

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

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Question # 39

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

A.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

B.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code.

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

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Question # 40

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Question # 41

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation: while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects

B.

That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Question # 42

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

A.

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Question # 43

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing.

D.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

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Question # 45

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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