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Question # 4

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is true?

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality characteristic

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends tocover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be

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Question # 5

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-functional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Question # 6

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Question # 7

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

D.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

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Question # 8

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

A.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

C.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

D.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

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Question # 9

Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

A.

Evaluate test basis and test object

B.

Create test completion report

C.

Assess testability of test object

D.

Define test environment requirements

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Question # 10

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

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Question # 11

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies tochecklist-based testing?

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

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Question # 12

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?

A.

Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this

B.

No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

C.

Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

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Question # 13

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

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Question # 14

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Question # 15

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Question # 16

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

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Question # 17

Which ONE of the following options isNOTa benefit oftest automation?

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

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Question # 18

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 19

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Question # 20

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Question # 21

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

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Question # 22

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing.

D.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

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Question # 23

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

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Question # 24

Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

A.

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

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Question # 25

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects

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Question # 27

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

A.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

B.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code.

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

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Question # 28

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is true?

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for daily stand-up meetings

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle

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Question # 30

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Question # 31

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Question # 32

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

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Question # 33

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Question # 34

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Question # 35

A test status report should:

A.

specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

always be based on the same template within an organization, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented

D.

specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organization that were chosen at the outset of the test project

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Question # 36

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

A.

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

C.

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

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Question # 37

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

A.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

B.

A testmanager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test caseswillnot be written as

mandated by the test policy.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

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Question # 38

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is true?

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Question # 39

Consider the followingiteration planning taskswhere a tester can provide value:

    Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

    Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

    Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

A.

Determining the test strategy

B.

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

C.

Planning the testing for the release

D.

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

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Question # 40

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is false?

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed

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Question # 41

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Question # 42

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test automation tool?

A.

The number of found bugs is reduced.

B.

The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.

C.

Test coverage is increased.

D.

The total cost of the test project always decreases

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Question # 43

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

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Question # 45

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Question # 46

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Question # 47

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

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Question # 48

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.

D.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

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Question # 49

What is test oracle?

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Question # 50

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Question # 51

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

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Question # 52

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1.The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2.Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3.Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4.First timeslot should have a 10% discount.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

A.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot. Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

B.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

C.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

D.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

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Question # 53

In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?

A.

It marks a point where the program’s execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

B.

It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.

C.

It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.

D.

It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

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Question # 54

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Question # 55

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 56

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 57

From a testing perspective, configuration management:

A.

allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results

B.

allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware

C.

includes all activities that direct and control an organization with regard to quality

D.

focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis

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