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Question # 4

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Question # 5

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Question # 6

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Question # 7

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Question # 8

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Question # 9

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

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Question # 10

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Question # 11

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Question # 12

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Question # 13

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

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Question # 14

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

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Question # 15

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Question # 16

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Question # 17

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Question # 18

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Question # 19

What is a test condition?

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Question # 20

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Question # 21

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Question # 22

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Question # 23

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Question # 24

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Question # 25

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Question # 26

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Question # 27

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

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Question # 28

What can testing demonstrate?

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

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Question # 29

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Question # 30

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

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Question # 31

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Question # 32

What is decision table testing?

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Question # 33

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

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Question # 34

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Question # 35

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Question # 36

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

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Question # 37

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Question # 38

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

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Question # 39

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Question # 40

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Question # 41

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Question # 42

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Question # 43

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Question # 44

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Question # 45

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Question # 46

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Question # 47

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Question # 48

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

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Question # 49

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Question # 50

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Question # 51

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Question # 52

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Question # 53

Which statement about use case testing is true?

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Question # 54

"Statement Testing" is part of;

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Question # 55

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Question # 56

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Question # 57

A tester thinks of a likely cause for a specific bug Should the tester make a comment about this in the bug report?

A.

No. A bug r^&ort must only include factual information, and not unsupported hypothesis

B.

No. Such addition may bias the developers' attitude when they attempt to fix the bug

C.

Yes It will reduce the risk that the bug fix will cause a regression

D.

Yes Observations that may help correct a bug should be included in the bug report

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Question # 58

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Question # 59

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test automation tool?

A.

Test coverage is increased.

B.

The number of found bugs is reduced.

C.

The total cost of the test project always decreases

D.

The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced

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Question # 60

Which of the following statements correctly describe Black-Box Testing''

A.

Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external influence

B.

Tests that investigate the input vs. trfe output behavior of a software system.

C.

Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications and technologies (sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)

D.

Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system

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Question # 61

Which of the following are part of ISTQB code of ethics?

I. Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest

II. Certified software tester shall always sign a NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement) in presence of customer data

III. Certified software testers shall maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment

IV Certified software testers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer, consistent with the public interest

A.

I, II, III

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, V

D.

I, III, IV

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Question # 62

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

A test team with high level of independence, may suffer from lower familiarity with the product

B.

Development team may find many defects since they are familiar with the code

C.

Tests designed by a person from different group in the organization is the highest independence level

D.

Tests designed by a person in the development team other than the person who wrote the code is the lowest level of independence

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Question # 63

Which of the following statements gives the BEST example of a trigger for maintenance testing?

A.

Retirement of a customer service application

B.

Business approval to fund a project to develop an e-commerce web application

C.

Completion of the requirements specifications for an application

D.

Completion of the designs for an application

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Question # 64

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

A.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

B.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

C.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

D.

More subjective assessment

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Question # 65

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not have to be repeatable. because they are only used once

A.

II

B.

II. IV, V

C.

I.IV

D.

I, III, IV

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Question # 66

Consider the following Pseudo code:

How many minimum lea cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?

A.

1 for Statement. 5 for Decision

B.

1 for Statement. 2 for Decision

C.

5 for Statement. 1 for Decision

D.

2 for Statement, 5 for Decision

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Question # 67

While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect?

A.

Urgency

B.

Priority

C.

Difficulty

D.

Severity

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Question # 68

Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

A.

Component test

B.

Feature test

C.

Functional test

D.

Subsystem test

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Question # 69

What type of testing is important after Migration, retirement or enhancement of an existing system?

A.

Regression testing

B.

Operational acceptance testing

C.

System Testing

D.

Maintenance testing

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Question # 70

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Question # 71

An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect during Performance testing?

A.

Dynamic analysis tool.

B.

Test Execution tool.

C.

Configuration management tool.

D.

Coverage measurement tool.

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Question # 72

Which of the following sentences about testing and debugging is correct?

A.

Re-testing checks that debugging has found and analyzed the failure

B.

Dynamic testing finds defects, while debugging removes failures

C.

Dynamic testing reveals failures, while debugging removes defects

D.

Like most development activities, debugging is usually done before testing starts

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Question # 73

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

A.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

B.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

C.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

D.

Every executable statement is covered

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Question # 74

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Question # 75

Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true?

A.

Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.

B.

The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents

C.

Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development

D.

Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product

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Question # 76

At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers write the steps of the test procedures?

A.

Test implementation and execution

B.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C.

Test closure activities

D.

Test planning and control

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Question # 77

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases rf the purchases exceeded S100. II was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

A.

The audit finding is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

B.

An issue with the design is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

C.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

D.

The audit finding is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% is the defect, and the incorrect requirement is the effect

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Question # 78

Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

I. Static analysis can be used instead of dynamic testing.

II Static analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.

III. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.

IV. Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

A.

II. Ill

B.

I. IV

C.

I. II

D.

III. IV

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Question # 79

An airline's frequent flyer's club awards benefits depending on which tier a customer is in. The software must determine which tier to allocate a customer to based on an input value of total Credits Earned to date

Customers initially join the Silver Tier and remain in that tier for the first 400 Credits Earned The next 400 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Gold Tier. The next 600 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Platinum Tier Further Credits Earned moves the customer into the Concierge Tier.

Test Cases have been written with the following total Credits Earned input values:

TC1 -400 Credits

TC2 - 500 Credits

TC3 - 800 Credits

TC4-1500 Credits

Applying the Equivalence Partitioning test design technique, what percentage of valid Equivalence Partitions have these 4 test cases collectively achieved?

A.

25%

B.

50%.

C.

75%.

D.

100%

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Question # 80

To which of the following test levels regression testing be applied?

I. Component Testing

II. Integration Testing

III. System Testing

IV. Acceptance Testing

A.

II, III, IV

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 81

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades. The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89. up to 100 – A

Above 79. up to 89 - B

Above 69. up to 79 – C

Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

A.

0, 58, 59, 70, 80

B.

69, 79, 80, 89, 90

C.

74, 79, 84, 85, 89

D.

79,89,90,99,100

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Question # 82

Which of the following is NOT a typical task for a test leader?

A.

Select the test approach

B.

Coordinate the test strategy

C.

Prepare and acquire test data

D.

Estimate the cost of testing

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Question # 83

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Question # 84

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

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Question # 85

Which of the following is an example of Static testing?

A.

Calculating path coverage using tools

B.

Performance testing

C.

Requirements review

D.

Usability testing

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Question # 86

When comparing Static and Dynamic test techniques, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

Static Testing finds failures, whilst Dynamic Testing only finds the cause of failures.

B.

Static Testing techniques, such as reviews, can be undertaken before Dynamic Testing, making defects cheaper to remove.

C.

Static Testing is based on the execution of code, whist Dynamic Testing relies on examination and analysis.

D.

Only Static Testing has the objective of identifying defects.

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Question # 87

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Question # 88

Which one of the following would you typically expect to find in a test completion report for a test level?

A.

Factors that are currently impeding test progress and the tests planned for the following day.

B.

A summary of the testing performed and any deviations from the schedule, duration or effort of test activities.

C.

The planned overall approach for testing and the resources required to perform the various test activities.

D.

The proposed exit criteria and metrics reports for review and agreement by the stakeholders.

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Question # 89

Given the following decision tables, what is the expected result for the test case listed below?

Test Case: Purchase a Toaster weighing 9kg for £10.

A.

No need to pay in cash, no free delivery.

B.

Must pay in cash, no free delivery.

C.

No need to pay in cash, free delivery.

D.

Must pay in cash, free delivery.

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Question # 90

Which of the following is a key difference between black box and white box test design techniques?

A.

Black box techniques use software code to derive test cases, white box techniques do not.

B.

White box techniques use functional design specifications to derive test cases, black box techniques do not.

C.

White box techniques can measure the extent of code coverage, black box techniques can not.

D.

White box techniques derive test cases from models of the software, black box techniques do not.

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Question # 91

Which statement about deriving test cases from a use case is TRUE?

A.

Test cases are designed to exercise the defined behaviours.

B.

There should only be one test case for each use case.

C.

Test cases can only be derived if there is an activity diagram.

D.

It is not possible to measure use case test coverage.

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Question # 92

Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:

Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states, using the minimum number of transitions?

A.

SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2.

B.

SS-S3-S2-S1.

C.

SS-S1-S2-S3.

D.

SS-S1-S3-S2.

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Question # 93

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Question # 94

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Question # 95

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

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Question # 96

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Question # 97

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Question # 98

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Question # 99

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Question # 100

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

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Question # 101

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

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Question # 102

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 103

For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively?

A.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 4

B.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 3

C.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 2

D.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 2

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Question # 104

Integration testing has following characteristics.

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV It includes non-functional tests

A.

I. l and IV are correct

B.

I Ill and IV are correct

C.

TI is correct

D.

II and III are correct

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Question # 105

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Question # 106

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

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Question # 107

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

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Question # 108

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

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Question # 109

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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