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Question # 4

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

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Question # 5

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 6

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 7

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Question # 8

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 9

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 10

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Question # 11

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

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Question # 12

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 13

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

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Question # 14

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 15

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 16

What is resource pooling?

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 17

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 18

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Question # 19

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Question # 20

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 21

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 22

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

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Question # 23

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Question # 24

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 25

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 26

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 27

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 28

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

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Question # 29

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

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Question # 30

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

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Question # 31

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

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Question # 32

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

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Question # 33

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

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Question # 34

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Question # 35

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 36

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

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Question # 37

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

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Question # 38

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Question # 39

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

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Question # 40

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Question # 41

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Question # 42

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 43

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

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Question # 44

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Question # 45

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

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Question # 46

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 47

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 48

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 49

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Question # 50

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Question # 51

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 52

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 53

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

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Question # 54

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 55

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

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Question # 56

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 57

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 58

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Lack of visibility

B.

Deployment flexibility

C.

Scaling and costs

D.

Intelligence sharing

E.

Insulation of clients

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Question # 59

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Question # 60

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

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Question # 61

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

A.

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

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Question # 62

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Question # 63

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Question # 64

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

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Question # 65

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 66

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Question # 67

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

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Question # 68

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 69

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 70

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Question # 71

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Question # 72

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 73

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

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Question # 74

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 75

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Question # 76

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Question # 77

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Question # 78

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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