The nurse should respect the mother’s request and facilitate the family’s emotional needs during the end-of-life care. The nurse should also ensure the patient’s safety and dignity by preparing and organizing the necessary equipment and monitoring before moving the mother next to the patient. The other options are not appropriate because they either deny the mother’s request, imply that the patient is no longer alive, or delay the organ donation process.

References:

• Donor Family Care Service - NHS Blood and Transplant
• Family-Centered Care to Improve Family Consent for Organ Donation

Pulmonary hypertension leads to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation, which can cause right ventricular hypertrophy and failure. This results in systemic venous congestion, presenting as distended neck veins. Crackles, rhonchi, and pink frothy sputum are more indicative of pulmonary edema or other respiratory conditions rather than pulmonary hypertension. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

A negative apnea test means that the patient does not breathe spontaneously when disconnected from the ventilator and exposed to a high level of carbon dioxide, which normally stimulates breathing. A negative apnea test is one of the criteria for brain death, as it indicates the loss of brainstem function. A positive vestibulo-ocular reflex, also known as the oculocephalic or doll’s eye reflex, means that the eyes move in the opposite direction of the head when the head is turned. A positive cough reflex means that the patient coughs when the trachea is stimulated. A negative cold caloric test means that the eyes do not move when cold water is injected into the ear canal. All these tests assess the integrity of the brainstem, and a positive result would exclude brain death. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

References:

• Diagnosis of brain death - UpToDate, under “Apnea testing”.
• Brain Death | Critical Care Medicine | JAMA | JAMA Network, under “How Is Brain Death Diagnosed?”.
• The 2023 AAN/AAP/CNS/SCCM Pediatric and Adult Brain Death/Death by …, under “Apnea Testing”.

Left shoulder pain, also known as Kehr sign, is a sign of splenic injury and diaphragmatic irritation. It is caused by the irritation of the phrenic nerve, which innervates both the diaphragm and the shoulder, by blood or other fluids in the left upper quadrant. Tachypnea, flank pain, and hiccoughs are not specific signs of splenic injury or diaphragmatic irritation.

References:

• Splenic trauma | Radiology Reference Article | Radiopaedia.org
• Recognition and management of diaphragmatic injury in adults
• Reference Guide for CCRN (Adult), page 14.

Asking the patient to explain what furosemide (Lasix) does for them assesses their understanding and allows the nurse to gauge their knowledge and correct any misconceptions. This method is more effective than asking yes/no questions, as it provides a comprehensive insight into the patient's medication literacy. References: = AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 102-105.

A patient with acetaminophen overdose is at risk for acute liver failure, which can lead to coagulopathy. This condition is often marked by an increased International Normalized Ratio (INR) due to impaired synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Decreasing level of consciousness can also result from hepatic encephalopathy, a complication of liver failure. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

The nurse’s best response is to explore the patient’s reasons for the request and understanding of potential consequences, as this demonstrates respect for the patient’s autonomy and dignity, as well as provides an opportunity to assess the patient’s decision-making capacity, goals of care, and preferences for end-of-life care. The nurse should also provide emotional support, education, and symptom management to the patient and family. Advocating with the care team for a withdrawal of treatment plan, encouraging the patient to continue with current medications and attempts to wean, or referring the patient’s request to the healthcare facility’s ethics committee for review are not appropriate responses, as they may undermine the patient’s right to self-determination, impose the nurse’s own values or beliefs, or delay the implementation of the patient’s wishes.

References:

• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Handbook. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Handbook], p. 19.
• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Blueprint. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Blueprint], p. 2.
• AACN. (2020). Practice Recommendations for End-of-Life Care in the Intensive Care Unit. Retrieved from [Practice Recommendations], p. 14-15.
• NICE. (2019). End of life care for adults: service delivery. Retrieved from [NICE Guidance], p. 4.

Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure (BP) of more than 10 mm Hg during normal inspiration. This phenomenon occurs due to the increased negative intrathoracic pressure during inspiration, which exaggerates the normal drop in systolic BP. It is often seen in conditions such as cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, and severe asthma or COPD exacerbations. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The appropriate outcomes for a patient with status asthmaticus are normal PaCO2 and increased FEV1. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation that does not respond to conventional treatment. It causes severe bronchoconstriction, air trapping, and mucus plugging, leading to hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory failure. The goals of treatment are to reverse the airway obstruction, improve gas exchange, and prevent complications. PaCO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood, which reflects the adequacy of ventilation. FEV1 is the forced expiratory volume in one second, which measures the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in the first second of a breath. It reflects the degree of bronchoconstriction and airflow limitation. A patient with status asthmaticus typically has elevated PaCO2 and reduced FEV1 due to poor ventilation and severe obstruction. Therefore, normalizing PaCO2 and increasing FEV1 indicate improvement in the patient’s condition and response to treatment.

References:

• Status Asthmaticus: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment - Healthline: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a severe form of asthma with symptoms similar to a typical asthma attack. But for status asthmaticus, symptoms may worsen as the asthma attack continues. Status asthmaticus is an older, less precise term for what’s now more commonly known as acute severe asthma or a severe asthma exacerbation. It refers to an asthma attack that doesn’t improve with traditional treatments, such as inhaled bronchodilators. These attacks can last for several minutes or even hours.”
• Status Asthmaticus (Severe Acute Asthma) - WebMD: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a severe asthma attack that doesn’t get better with your usual treatments. It can be life-threatening and needs urgent medical attention. If you have a bad asthma attack and your rescue inhaler or your nebulizer doesn’t help, you need medical care right away. If an attack comes on quickly and it doesn’t respond to regular treatment, it can lead to status asthmaticus.”
• Management of Status Asthmaticus | SpringerLink: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by progressive respiratory failure despite aggressive treatment. It is defined as an acute exacerbation of asthma that remains unresponsive to initial treatment with bronchodilators. Status asthmaticus can vary in severity from mild to fatal. The pathophysiology of status asthmaticus is complex and involves airway inflammation, bronchospasm, airway edema, mucus plugging, and increased airway resistance. The clinical manifestations of status asthmaticus include dyspnea, wheezing, cough, chest tightness, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypoxemia, and hypercapnia. The diagnosis of status asthmaticus is based on history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, such as arterial blood gas analysis, spirometry, and chest radiography. The management of status asthmaticus consists of oxygen therapy, inhaled beta-2 agonists, systemic corticosteroids, and adjunctive therapies, such as anticholinergics, magnesium sulfate, ketamine, and noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation. The goals of treatment are to relieve bronchoconstriction, reduce airway inflammation, correct hypoxemia, normalize or reduce carbon dioxide levels, and avoid or treat complications.”

Hemothorax

Diminished breath sounds are one of the symptoms that may indicate hemothorax or internal bleeding in a video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) patient. VATS is a minimally invasive surgical technique that uses a small video camera (thoracoscope) and special instruments to access the chest cavity through small incisions1. Hemothorax is a condition where blood accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall2. Hemothorax can occur as a complication of VATS due to injury to the lung, blood vessels, or chest wall during the procedure3. Hemothorax can cause compression of the lung and reduce its expansion, leading to diminished breath sounds on the affected side2. Other symptoms of hemothorax may include chest pain, shortness of breath, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and pale or clammy skin2.

Internal bleeding is another possible complication of VATS that can cause similar symptoms as hemothorax. Internal bleeding can occur due to damage to the major vessels, such as the aorta, pulmonary artery, or vena cava, during VATS. Internal bleeding can cause hypovolemia, which is a decrease in the volume of blood in the body, and hypoxemia, which is a low level of oxygen in the blood. These conditions can impair the delivery of oxygen to the tissues and organs, including the lungs, and cause diminished breath sounds, as well as other signs of shock, such as confusion, weakness, dizziness, and loss of consciousness.

Pain with deep inspiration, bradycardia, and hypertension are not typical symptoms of hemothorax or internal bleeding in a VATS patient. Pain with deep inspiration may be a normal postoperative finding after VATS, as the incisions and the chest tube may cause discomfort. Bradycardia and hypertension may be caused by other factors, such as medications, cardiac disorders, or neurological conditions, but they are not directly related to hemothorax or internal bleeding .

References:

• 1: Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS) | Johns Hopkins Medicine
• 2: Hemothorax: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis & Treatment - Cleveland Clinic2
• 3: Complications of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery: a retrospective analysis of 3000 cases - PubMed
• : Major vascular complications after video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery: a case report and literature review - PubMed
• : Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS) | Michigan Medicine
• : Bradycardia - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic
• : High blood pressure (hypertension) - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic

Epidural hematoma

An epidural hematoma is a collection of blood that forms between the skull and the dura mater, the outermost layer of the meninges that cover the brain. The most common cause of an epidural hematoma is a head injury that fractures the temporal bone and tears the middle meningeal artery, which runs along the inner surface of the skull. Arterial bleeding is under high pressure and can rapidly expand the hematoma, compressing the brain and causing neurological deterioration. A typical symptom of an epidural hematoma is a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness and brain function. This condition requires urgent surgical evacuation of the hematoma to prevent brain damage or death12. Venous bleeding, clot formation, and intracranial aneurysm are not the main factors associated with the deterioration of the patient’s condition in this case.

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema is most often associated with damage to the alveolar capillary membrane secondary to aspiration. This condition occurs when there is increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, leading to fluid leakage into the alveoli. It is a hallmark of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), which can be triggered by aspiration, resulting in inflammatory damage to the lungs.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 29

Dopamine, when administered at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min, acts primarily as an alpha-adrenergic agonist, leading to vasoconstriction. This results in increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and increased mean arterial pressure (MAP), which are desired outcomes in the treatment of septic shock. This effect helps improve perfusion to vital organs and stabilize hemodynamics in patients with septic shock. References: =

• CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Cardiovascular and Hemodynamics.
• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

The patient's ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis (pH 7.33, PaCO2 48 mm Hg) with a slightly elevated temperature (103.2° F). In the context of fever and acidosis, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, a phenomenon described by the Bohr effect. This means that hemoglobin will release oxygen more readily to the tissues. Factors like increased temperature and acidosis cause a rightward shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 44

This is the nurse’s best initial response, as it expresses empathy, validates the patient’s feelings, and assesses the patient’s risk of suicide. Depression is a common and serious mental health condition that affects older adults, especially those living in nursing homes. Depression can cause persistent sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts or behaviors. The nurse should screen the patient for depression using a validated tool, such as the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) 1, and ask about any suicidal ideation or plans. The nurse should also provide emotional support, education, and referral to appropriate resources for the patient.

B. “Those feelings should resolve when the medication you’ve started has a chance to take effect.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it dismisses the patient’s feelings, implies that the patient just needs to wait for the medication to work, and does not address the patient’s psychosocial needs. Antidepressants are one of the treatment options for depression, but they may take several weeks to show their full effect, and they may not work for everyone. The nurse should also explore other factors that may contribute to the patient’s depression, such as social isolation, loss of autonomy, chronic illness, or grief, and offer interventions that may help the patient cope, such as counseling, psychotherapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, or social activities.

C. “I understand how you feel. We all get that way when we’re depressed.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it assumes that the nurse knows how the patient feels, minimizes the patient’s experience, and generalizes the patient’s condition. Depression is not a normal or inevitable part of aging, and it affects each person differently. The nurse should not compare the patient’s feelings to their own or to others, but rather acknowledge and respect the patient’s unique perspective and situation. The nurse should also avoid using words like “we” or “you” that may create a sense of distance or judgment, and instead use words like “I” or “me” that may convey a sense of empathy or rapport.

D. “Have you talked to anyone about what is bothering you?”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it may sound like the nurse is trying to avoid listening to the patient, or that the patient is bothering the nurse with their problems. The nurse should not imply that the patient should talk to someone else, but rather show interest and willingness to listen to the patient. The nurse should also use open-ended questions that invite the patient to share more, such as “How are you feeling today?” or “What has been on your mind lately?” The nurse should also use active listening skills, such as nodding, paraphrasing, reflecting, or summarizing, to demonstrate understanding and engagement.

Hypokalemia

A patient with a potassium concentration of 3.0 mEq/L has mild hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood. Hypokalemia can cause various ECG changes that reflect the impairment of cardiac depolarization and repolarization. The most common ECG changes in mild hypokalemia are ST segment depression, flattened and inverted T wave, and a U wave, which is a positive deflection after the T wave. These ECG changes can be seen in the examples from the web search results12. Other ECG changes that may occur in more severe hypokalemia are prolonged QT interval, frequent ectopic beats, and arrhythmias123. Tall peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, and prolonged QRS complex are ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood12. Shortened QT interval and complete atrioventricular block are not typical ECG changes of hypokalemia, but may occur in other electrolyte disorders, such as hypercalcemia2. Inverted P wave, elevated T wave, and prolonged QT interval are not specific ECG changes of hypokalemia, but may occur in other cardiac conditions, such as ischemia, myocarditis, or pericarditis2.

A high mixed venous O2 saturation (SO2) indicates that the tissue cells are not extracting enough oxygen from the blood, which can be due to impaired cellular metabolism or increased oxygen delivery. In septic shock, there is often a mismatch between oxygen delivery and consumption, resulting in a high SO2 despite tissue hypoxia. Therefore, SO2 alone is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion in septic shock.

References:

• Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) monitoring • LITFL • CCC
• SvO2 to monitor resuscitation of septic patients: let’s just understand the basic physiology | Critical Care | Full Text
• Reference Guide for CCRN (Adult), page 14.

The best response is to assess the patient's feelings and understanding of their condition and prognosis. This response opens a dialogue and allows the nurse to provide education and emotional support based on the patient's specific concerns. Other responses may provide false reassurance or imply assumptions about the patient’s future without first understanding their current emotional state and concerns. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

In a patient with a hemorrhaging renal laceration who remains hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation with two units of PRBCs and 500 mL of NS, administering norepinephrine (Levophed) is appropriate. Norepinephrine is a potent vasopressor that helps to increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction and improving cardiac output, which is critical in stabilizing a patient with severe hemorrhagic shock prior to surgery.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 38

The caloric irrigation test, also known as the oculovestibular reflex test, is used to assess brainstem function in patients, especially those who are comatose. In this test, cold water is introduced into the ear canal, which should induce a predictable response if the brainstem is intact. The normal response to cold water irrigation is nystagmus with slow deviation of the eyes toward the side of the cold water (in this case, the left) and a fast phase of eye movement (nystagmus) away from the side of the cold water (to the right). This indicates that the brainstem pathways are functioning properly. References: =

• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

Lorazepam (Ativan) is most appropriate to administer in a patient who has smoked crack cocaine and is agitated, particularly after a generalized seizure. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam help to manage agitation and seizure activity associated with cocaine toxicity by providing sedative and anticonvulsant effects.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 53

Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) is administered after a carotid endarterectomy to decrease mean arterial pressure (MAP) and reduce the risk of hemorrhage at the surgical site. By lowering the blood pressure, it minimizes the chance of bleeding while ensuring adequate cerebral perfusion through careful monitoring. References: = AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 75-78.

When a patient exhibits anxiety and threats of harm, it is crucial to de-escalate the situation through verbal communication and engagement. By encouraging the patient to verbalize their feelings, the nurse can address the patient's fears and anxieties, reducing the likelihood of aggression. This approach promotes a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship and ensures the safety of both the patient and healthcare staff. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

A copious amount of serous drainage from a liver resection incision may indicate a bile leak, which can cause pain, infection, and delayed healing. The nurse should anticipate applying several abdominal dressings to absorb the fluid and protect the wound. The nurse should also monitor the patient for signs of infection, such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and foul-smelling drainage. The nurse should notify the surgeon of the excessive drainage and follow the orders for further interventions, such as imaging studies, drainage catheter placement, or surgical repair. Antibiotics may be prescribed, but they are not the first-line treatment for a bile leak. Incision and debridement of the wound may be necessary if there is necrotic tissue or infection, but it is not the initial action. Applying a drainage pouch to the site may not be sufficient to contain the large amount of fluid and may increase the risk of skin breakdown.

References:

• Problems after cancer surgery to remove part of your liver: This article states that “The bile ducts connect the liver and gallbladder to the small bowel. There is a risk of bile leaking from the ducts on the cut surface of the liver. This may cause pain, sickness and a high temperature. Rarely, you might need another operation to repair the leak.”
• Understanding Liver Abscess Treatment - Saint Luke’s Health System: This article states that “The provider uses CT scan or ultrasound to help place the wire in the right spot. A thin, flexible tube (catheter) is then placed over the wire and into the abscess. The tube is left in place for 5 to 7 days to drain the fluid. In some cases, surgery may be done to cut into the liver abscess and drain it.”
• How Much Time Does it Take to Recover from Liver Surgery?: This article states that “If you have any drainage from your incision or if the area around your incision is puffy or red, visit your surgeon. Take a shower every day with warm water. When you are ready to take solid foods, make sure to eat 4 to 6 small meals every day. Do not lift heavy weights for 8 weeks after your surgery.”

When a patient has been declared brain dead, the appropriate initial action for a nurse who has not previously discussed organ donation with a family is to consult the organ donation liaison. These professionals are trained to handle sensitive conversations about organ donation and can provide the necessary support and information to the family, ensuring that the process is handled respectfully and in accordance with legal and ethical guidelines. References: =

• CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Professional Caring and Ethical Practice.
• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

Conducting a literature review is an essential step in evidence-based practice. Sharing these findings with the staff and obtaining their input fosters a collaborative environment and ensures that the best practices are understood and implemented by all. This approach also helps identify any practical concerns or barriers to implementation. Simply switching back to the old trays without addressing the root cause or educating the staff may not prevent future CAUTIs. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Chaplain services in hospitals are designed to address the spiritual needs of patients and their families, regardless of their specific faith or belief system. While a chaplain may belong to a particular denomination, they are trained to provide support and resources to people of various faiths and spiritual beliefs. This approach helps ensure that all patients receive appropriate spiritual care, which can be a crucial part of holistic care in critical situations. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Shock is the most common prerenal cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN). In the context of prerenal conditions, shock leads to decreased renal perfusion and subsequent ischemia, which can cause damage to the renal tubules. Other options such as blood transfusion reaction, crush injury, and beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection can lead to renal damage but are not the most common prerenal causes of ATN. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 28, section on Renal/GU.

Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) involves increased intra-abdominal pressure, which can significantly impact various body systems. One of the major concerns is its effect on respiratory function, leading to increased peak inspiratory pressure. This happens because the elevated pressure in the abdomen can push up against the diaphragm, making it harder for the lungs to expand during inhalation. Increased urine output is unlikely as ACS usually leads to decreased renal perfusion and output. Increased preload and decreased intracranial pressure are not typically associated with ACS. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Alcohol withdrawal syndrome

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Answer: A

The patient’s symptoms of tremulousness, anxiety, and startle response suggest that he may be experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which can occur within hours to days after the last drink. Alcohol withdrawal can cause severe complications, such as seizures, delirium tremens, and death, if not treated promptly and appropriately. Alcohol withdrawal can also worsen GI bleeding by increasing gastric acid secretion, impairing clotting factors, and causing hypertension and tachycardia. Therefore, the most pertinent part of the patient’s history to obtain is the last alcohol intake, which can help determine the risk and severity of withdrawal and guide the management of the patient.

References:

• Management of moderate and severe alcohol withdrawal syndromes: This article states that “Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal occur because alcohol is a central nervous system depressant. When a person drinks frequently, the brain compensates for alcohol’s depressant effects by increasing the activity of excitatory neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate, and reducing the activity of inhibitory neurotransmitters, such as gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). When alcohol intake is abruptly discontinued or reduced, this neuroadaptation is unmasked, resulting in a hyperexcitable state that is responsible for the characteristic withdrawal symptoms.”
• Alcoholic Gastritis: Causes, Symptoms and Treatment: This article states that “Alcohol Gastritis is a type of acute gastritis and is caused by excessive alcohol consumption. The sudden inflammation of the stomach lining can be very painful and cause severe stomach cramping, irritability and vomiting. While consuming too much alcohol is the main cause of Alcohol Gastritis, it often develops in connection with some sort of infection, direct irritation or localized tissue damage. It can be caused by: Taking non-steroidal, anti-inflammatory medications like aspirin or ibuprofen (i.e., NSAIDs). Certain bacterial infections. Bile reflux from proximal small intestine. Autoimmune disorders.”
• Can You Get Internal Bleeding from Alcohol Abuse: This article states that “Over time, alcohol abuse starts to eat away at the stomach lining. Continued drinking sets the stage for alcoholic gastritis to develop. Under these conditions, internal bleeding from alcohol abuse takes the form of blood oozing from stomach lines on an ongoing basis.”

Hypoperfusion is a condition in which the blood flow to the organs and tissues is insufficient to meet their metabolic demands. Hypoperfusion can result from third-degree AV block, which is a complete loss of communication between the atria and the ventricles. This causes the ventricles to beat very slowly or not at all, leading to a low cardiac output and reduced blood pressure. Hypoperfusion can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, confusion, chest pain, shortness of breath, and shock12. Heart failure, hypoxia, and chest pain are possible complications of hypoperfusion, but they are not the most common problem in patients with third-degree AV block.

In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by an increase in bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Bubbling in this chamber occurs when air escapes from the pleural space into the chest drainage system. An increase in bubbling signifies an ongoing air leak, indicating that air is still entering the pleural space, often due to a bronchopleural fistula or lung injury.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 36

The administration of hypertonic saline (3% Normal Saline) creates an osmotic gradient that pulls water out of the swollen brain tissue into the vascular system, helping to reduce cerebral edema. This is a critical intervention in managing increased intracranial pressure in patients with hemorrhagic stroke. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

In the context of cardiogenic shock managed with vasopressor and inotrope therapies, organ dysfunction from hypoperfusion can manifest as elevated creatinine and abdominal pain. Elevated creatinine indicates renal impairment, a common result of poor perfusion to the kidneys. Abdominal pain can indicate hypoperfusion to the gastrointestinal tract, leading to ischemic bowel or other GI complications. These symptoms are direct indicators of hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

In a patient with head trauma, the primary pathophysiology underlying acute respiratory failure often involves hypercapnia due to decreased minute ventilation. Head trauma can impair the central nervous system's ability to regulate breathing, leading to inadequate ventilation and a build-up of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. Other factors like shifting of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, increased intrapulmonary shunt, and dehydration due to diabetes insipidus may be present but are not the primary causes. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 25, section on Respiratory.

An increase in peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) over time in a mechanically ventilated patient indicates a decrease in lung compliance. This means the lungs are becoming stiffer and less able to expand, which can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary edema, ARDS, or pneumothorax. It is important to address the underlying cause of decreased lung compliance to prevent further respiratory complications. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

When a physician has attempted to insert a central line multiple times without success, the nurse's responsibility includes ensuring patient safety and advocating for the patient. Continued attempts by the same physician may increase the risk of complications, such as infection or trauma. Therefore, the nurse should suggest that another physician, possibly one with more experience or skill in central line insertion, perform the procedure. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

In patients with head injuries, increased muscle tone and contractured positioning (such as decorticate or decerebrate posturing) are signs of significant neurological impairment. It is essential to manage these symptoms to prevent further complications. Consulting a physical therapist is the best course of action to ensure appropriate positioning, prevent contractures, and manage spasticity effectively. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

After gastric bypass surgery, the altered anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract makes it challenging to place a gastric tube. Performing the procedure under fluoroscopy provides real-time imaging guidance, ensuring correct placement and reducing the risk of complications, such as perforation or misplacement.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 45

This response is the most appropriate because it acknowledges the family’s concern, invites them to share their perspective, and opens up a dialogue about the patient’s condition and comfort. Communication with patients and families about illness progression and end of life requires sensitivity, empathy, and respect. The nurse should avoid making assumptions, giving false reassurance, or dismissing the family’s emotions. Instead, the nurse should explore the family’s understanding, expectations, and needs, and provide information and support accordingly12. Answer A is not appropriate because it does not address the family’s emotional distress or their perception of the patient’s suffering. Answer C is not appropriate because it may contradict the family’s observation or belief, and it may imply that the patient is not aware of their presence or care. Answer D is not appropriate because it may seem like the nurse is avoiding the issue or imposing a religious intervention that the family may not want or need.

Papillary muscle dysfunction, often resulting from myocardial infarction, can lead to mitral insufficiency (mitral regurgitation). The papillary muscles support the mitral valve, and if they are damaged, the valve may not close properly, causing blood to flow backward into the left atrium during systole. This condition is not associated with aortic stenosis, mitral stenosis, or aortic insufficiency. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Haloperidol

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Haloperidol has a known side effect of prolonging the QT interval, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias123. Therefore, after the administration of haloperidol, it is important for a nurse to monitor for a prolonged QT interval and cardiac dysrhythmias123. This is why continuous cardiac monitoring is recommended if repeated doses are given1.