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Question # 4

Which of the following statements regarding egress FC and profile over-ride are TRUE? (Choose two)

A.

Packets can be classified into 16 different FCs when using priority mode queuing.

B.

This feature is available on egress SAPs within any service.

C.

MPLS EXP bits can be changed based on multi-field classification.

D.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, only the MF override parameters will take effect.

E.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, the BA classification can override the forwarding class while the MF classification can override the profile.

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Question # 5

In a BGP VPLS, which of the following BGP attributes is used to carry the L2 MTU?

A.

The NRLI

B.

The AFI

C.

The SAFI

D.

The extended community

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Question # 6

Which of the following statements regarding the egress port scheduler is TRUE?

A.

The egress port scheduler can have up to 17 children spread across 8 levels.

B.

Multiple egress port schedulers can be assigned to a single port with many HQoS children.

C.

Multiple HQoS policies can be children of a single port scheduler.

D.

Multiple egress port schedulers can be children of a single HQoS scheduler.

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Question # 7

Click the exhibit button below.

Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:

Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1

TCP port number = 23

DSCP value = nc1

Dot1pvalue = 3

A.

H2

B.

NC

C.

L2

D.

EF

E.

H1

F.

BE

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Question # 8

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where can network-queue policies be applied? (Choose two)

A.

On the network egress port.

B.

On the SDP.

C.

On the access ingress port.

D.

On the egress MDA.

E.

On the SAP.

F.

On the ingress MDA.

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Question # 9

How does an IOM3 improve the queue usage over an IOM2 in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

A.

The IOM3 adds more memory to both forwarding complexes which increases the total number of queues available.

B.

The IOM3 only contains a single forwarding complex which reduces the number of queues used.

C.

The IOM3 allows multiple forwarding classes to be assigned to a single queue.

D.

The IOM3 allows queues to be dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

The IOM3 has a larger CPU capable of tracking active hardware queue utilization and adjusting memory allocation accordingly.

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Question # 10

For what does a Layer 2 switch use the SA in the Ethernet frame?

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Question # 11

How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?

A.

8

B.

16

C.

6

D.

4

E.

3

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Question # 12

To implement Hierarchical-QoS (Multi-tiered scheduling), which of the following actions must be undertaken? (Choose three)

A.

H-QoS capabilities must be enabled globally on the router

B.

A scheduler-policy must be configured.

C.

The queues in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies do not require additional configuration attributes to make use of the hierarchical schedulers.

D.

The network queue policy must be configured to make use of the scheduler-policy.

E.

The scheduler-policy must be referenced in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies.

F.

The scheduler-policy must be applied on the service SAP.

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Question # 13

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

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Question # 14

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, what is a slope policy used for?

A.

Defining the slope of the TCP slow-start mechanism for self generated traffic.

B.

Defining the slope of the scheduling rate per forwarding class when using HQoS.

C.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for UDP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

D.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the shared buffer pool.

E.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

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Question # 15

The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant (first) bits define precedence.

A.

8, 6, 3

B.

8, 8, 6

C.

16, 8, 4

D.

8, 6, 4

E.

24, 16, 8

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Question # 16

Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues, while the contents of the queues are serviced in a controlled manner using____________.

A.

WRED

B.

shapers

C.

schedulers

D.

markers

E.

weighted fair queues (WFQ)

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Question # 17

Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)

A.

The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.

B.

The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.

C.

The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.

D.

To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.

E.

DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.

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Question # 18

Policing improves bandwidth utilization by using buffering to absorb high bursts of traffic.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 19

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, how many queues per FC are available for multipoint traffic within a VPLS on service ingress?

A.

64

B.

8

C.

3

D.

16

E.

1

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Question # 20

Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered macroflows.

A.

SAPs

B.

SDPs

C.

Services

D.

Queues

E.

Schedulers

F.

Forwarding classes

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Question # 21

Click the exhibit button below.

All interfaces are using their default trust states and MPLS is used as the transport tunnel. The SAP-ingress, SAP-egress, and network QoS policies have been configured as shown below. Assume that the default network-queue policy is used on each router.

At router PE 1, customer traffic is arriving marked with DSCP BE and tagged with a dot1p value of 3.

Based on the configuration shown below for the VPRN service, what will be the DSCP and dot1p marking for the packet egressing at router PE 2? (Choose two)

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

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Question # 22

It is necessary for Tier 1 schedulers to obtain bandwidth from a higher tier scheduler.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 23

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

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Question # 24

Which of the following identify the port roles of the mesh SDPs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 25

Which of the following about inter-AS model A VPRN is FALSE?

A.

It requires the configuration of back-to-back VRFs between ASBR routers in different autonomous systems

B.

It is the most scalable of the Inter-AS models.

C.

Most routers that support VPRN functionality support model A by default.

D.

It uses conventional eBGP to distribute unlabeled IPv4 routes between ASBR routers in different autonomous systems.

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Question # 26

Which of the following about the maximum number of routes that can be accepted in a VRF for a VPRN service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR allows the setting of the maximum number of routes that can be accepted in a VRF for a VPRN service.

B.

The "maximum-routes" command is used to specify the maximum number of remote routes that can be held within a VRF for a VPRN service.

C.

When the "maximum-routes" command is used with the "log-only" parameter, new routes are still learned.

D.

Once the "threshold" value is reached, no new routes are added to the VRF.

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Question # 27

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which CLI command displays the Route Target(s) associated to a prefix?

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router route-table summary

C.

Show router bgp routes vpn-ipv4 detail

D.

Show router route-table

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Question # 28

Which method does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR use for the allocation of VPRN labels?

A.

One label per route

B.

One label per next-hop

C.

One label per VRF

D.

One label per prefix

E.

One label per tunnel

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Question # 29

You are configuring a VPLS spoke termination to a VPRN on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. If LDP is used for all transport tunnels, what type of sessions are established by the VPRN PE router that is configured with the spoke termination?

A.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

B.

T-LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

C.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

D.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers, and both T-LDP and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

E.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

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Question # 30

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

A.

Configuring labeled eBGP sessions between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring labeled iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites.

D.

Advertising the received system addresses of remote PEs using either iBGP or IGP/LDP within each customer carrier site.

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Question # 31

If Route Reflector 1 (RR1) is used for Internet routes, and Route Reflector 2 (RR2) is used for VPN routes, which of the following is TRUE?

A.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

B.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

C.

BGP sessions established between RR1 and the PEs support IPv4 and VPN-IPv4 address families.

D.

BGP sessions established between RR2 and the PEs support the IPv4 address family only.

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Question # 32

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is TRUE?

A.

The ASBRs use MP-eBGP to peer with each other and exchange IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

B.

The ASBRs use MP-iBGP to peer with PE routers in their autonomous system and exchange VPN-IPv4 routes.

C.

The ASBRs maintain a mapping of labels for IPv4 routes exchanged between autonomous systems.

D.

The ASBRs require per-VPRN configuration.

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Question # 33

Which of the following commands on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR will verify connectivity for a VPRN service when issued from the PE?

A.

oam vprn-ping source destination

B.

oam vprn-ping source destination

C.

vprn-ping router

D.

Ping source

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Question # 34

Which of the following about Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is FALSE?

A.

CSC eliminates the need for customer carriers to build and maintain their own MPLS backbone.

B.

CSC is also known as carrier's carrier or carrier serving carrier.

C.

The customer carrier provides VPN or Internet services to its end-customers.

D.

A CSC VPRN is configured on the customer carrier's CSC-CE routers.

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Question # 35

Given the following VPRN topology: The VPRN service 10 is correctly configured and operational with OSPF as the PE to CE routing protocol at both customer sites. The OSPF database on CE-A contains Type 1 LSAs. These routes will appear as what LSA type on CE-B?

A.

These routes will not appear on CE-B

B.

Type 1 LSAs

C.

Type 3 LSAs

D.

Type 5 LSAs

E.

Type 7 LSAs

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Question # 36

Which of the following is a benefit of a hub and spoke VPRN topology?

A.

Reduced number of VPN tunnels that need to be managed.

B.

Optimal routing between all sites.

C.

Limited configuration required on the hub PE device.

D.

Site to site redundancy support.

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Question # 37

Click the exhibit.

The AS-path nullification method is used to prevent CE2 from discarding routes received from CE1. On which router should the AS-path nullification policy be configured?

A.

CE1

B.

PE2

C.

PE1

D.

CE2

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Question # 38

Which of the following devices would typically have VRF instances?

A.

Any CE device

B.

Any PE device

C.

Any P device

D.

Any router in the service provider core

E.

Any customer router

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Question # 39

In a VPRN, how does the service provider ensure that customer addresses are unique when multiple customers use the same address space?

A.

It is the customer responsibility to ensure their address space is unique

B.

The Route Distinguisher ensures that addresses are unique between customers.

C.

The Route Target ensures that addresses are unique between customers

D.

The provider will advise the customers to change their addresses

E.

The provider will use NAT to ensure that addresses are unique between customers

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Question # 40

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. If CE1 sends an IP packet to 192.168.200.1, which of the following is FALSE?

A.

CE1 forwards the data packet to PE1 via the VPRN 20 interface.

B.

PE1 pushes two labels on the IP packet: a BGP label and an LDP transport label.

C.

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and swaps the BGP label.

D.

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label and pushes a VPN label and an MPLS transport label.

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Question # 41

It is required to prepare the provider core for LDP on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. Based on the configuration shown below, choose the answer that best describes the given configuration.

A.

This configuration is correct and complete

B.

This configuration is correct except that the system interface must be added

C.

This configuration is correct except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.

D.

MPLS configuration is not required

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Question # 42

In inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following about the command "advertise-label ipv4" is TRUE?

A.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes directly to PEs in remote AS.

B.

This command is required on the ASBRs to exchange labeled IPv4 routes between the ASs.

C.

This command is required on the route reflectors to exchange customer routes between ASs as labeled IPv4 routes.

D.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes to connected CEs.

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Question # 43

Which of the following about eiBGP Load Balancing is FALSE?

A.

ecmp and multipath must be configured within the VPRN instance.

B.

The RD of the VPRN on the local PE must be different from the RD of the remote PEs.

C.

Is enabled in the config>router>bgp context

D.

Allows a PE router to load share traffic across routes learned from both direct CE-PE peerings and MP-BGP peerings.

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Question # 44

For a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN where the customer carrier is an ISP that provides Internet connectivity to its end-customers, which of the following is FALSE?

A.

All traffic exchanged between end-customers is carried over a single CSC VRF.

B.

Customer carrier PE routers residing in different sites must run eBGP between them to exchange customers' routes.

C.

The customer carrier network can be a pure IP network.

D.

MPLS can be used in the customer carrier network to improve scalability.

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Question # 45

Click the exhibit.

For the Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-CE1 andCSC-PE1?

A.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

B.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

C.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

D.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

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Question # 46

Click the exhibit.

How many route targets and route distinguishers are required to implement the extranet VPRN?

A.

Three route targets and three route distinguishers

B.

Five route targets and three route distinguishers

C.

Three route targets and two route distinguishers

D.

Five route targets and two route distinguishers

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Question # 47

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which router is configured as shown?

A.

PE1

B.

RR1

C.

ASBR1

D.

ASBR2

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Question # 48

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. Which route is present in PE1's global routing table?

A.

192.168.10.1

B.

192.168.20.1

C.

10.10.10.1

D.

10.10.10.6

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Question # 49

Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 50

What is the default Spanning Tree protocol used in a VPLS on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A.

802.1D2004

B.

802.1D 1998

C.

comp-dot1w

D.

PVST

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Question # 51

Consider a large metro-to-metro VPLS network interconnected with a mesh of mesh-SDPs. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to this situation?

A.

Bandwidth and replication inefficiency can occur on inter-metro links if there is a lot of multicast traffic

B.

The number of control sessions grows exponentially in a fully meshed network.

C.

Spanning-tree is required to prevent loops when using mesh SDPs on the inter-metro links.

D.

Network touches increase with each node added to the mesh.

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Question # 52

Click on the exhibit below.

A new site is added to PE-D of Metro B. Which of the following statement below is true?

A.

If a spoke-SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

B.

If a mesh- SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

C.

A mesh- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

D.

A spoke- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

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Question # 53

What function in IEEE 802.1 ah helps to limit the amount of MAC addresses learned in the core?

A.

I-VPLS is configured in the core of the network with an l-MAC address. This l-MAC address is the only MAC learned in the core

B.

The B-VPLS and l-VPLS are configured in the edge. The B-VPLS is configured with a Backbone MAC and is the only MAC learned in the core

C.

Each SDP is configured with a Backbone MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

D.

Each SAP is associated with a common l-MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

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Question # 54

Which failure scenario is NOT supported by IEEE 802.lag?

A.

Loss of connectivity.

B.

Unidirectional Loss.

C.

Loop detection.

D.

Merged Services.

E.

End-to-end bit error rates.

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Question # 55

Fill in the blank for this next sentence. Flooded traffic received on any ____________ in the service is replicated to other spoke SDPs and SAPs and not transmitted on any mesh SDPs.

A.

Spoke SDP

B.

Mesh SDP

C.

Either (a) or (b) will make this sentence true.

D.

Neither (a) nor (b) will make this sentence true.

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Question # 56

What is the name of the feature supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR that prevents MAC explosion in large VPLS deployments?

A.

H-VPLS

B.

M-VPLS

C.

PBB

D.

MC-EP

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Question # 57

What is the maximum number of VLANs supported on a traditional Layer 2 switch?

A.

4094

B.

8190

C.

32768

D.

131071

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Question # 58

After the "disable-learning" command has been executed at the VPLS level, a new client device originates a frame. What is the result?

A.

If the MAC address of this new client device does not reach the upper limit of the configured total number of MAC addresses allowed in the VPLS forwarding database, then the new MAC address will be stored.

B.

The new source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database.

C.

New local source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database, but new remote MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

D.

New remote source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS services forwarding database, but new local MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

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Question # 59

What action will be taken when an Ethernet switch receives a frame with a known DA and an outer Ethertype value of 0x0800 on a dot1q encapsulated port?

A.

The frame will be forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be flooded to all ports.

D.

The frame will be fragmented and forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

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Question # 60

Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?

A.

Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.

B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.

B.

R4 and R3 will remain reachable.

C.

No devices will be reachable.

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Question # 61

An l-VPLS can be associated with many B-VPLS services.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 62

RSTP blocks a spoke-sdp using a management VPLS. Is traffic affected on an ES using the same transport SDP?

A.

Yes

B.

No

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Question # 63

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

A.

VPLS1500 is a user VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1500 is management VPLS.

C.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are tagged.

D.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are untagged.

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Question # 64

What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?

A.

100

B.

1

C.

25

D.

250

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Question # 65

Click on the exhibit below.

The following VPLS services and SAPs have been configured. Which of the following statements is true?

A.

All untagged frames will be dropped.

B.

The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 300 will be populated in VPLS 3.

C.

All frames with more than one tag will be dropped.

D.

The source MAC address of a frame with a single tag of 500 will be populated in VPLS 1.

E.

The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 100 will be populated in VPLS 2.

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Question # 66

How is MAC learning achieved in traditional Ethernet switches?

A.

As frames leave the switch, the DA is populated into the FDB.

B.

As frames enter the switch, the DA is populated into the FDB.

C.

As frames leave the switch, the SA is populated into the FDB.

D.

As frames enter the switch, the SA is populated into the FDB.

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Question # 67

To reduce the amount of flooding between PE devices which of the following steps should be taken?

A.

Configure the local age timer to be larger.

B.

Configure the local age timer to be lower.

C.

Configure the remote age timer to be larger.

D.

Configure the remote age to be lower.

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Question # 68

The operation of a VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?

A.

A frame should be sent to the PE that connects to the target site whenever possible.

B.

A frame should be flooded as little as possible.

C.

Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address.

D.

All of the above.

E.

Only (a) and (b) are true.

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Question # 69

How can one ensure that a specific switch will be select as root in an STP network?

A.

Set the bridge priority to 131071.

B.

Set the bridge priority to 0.

C.

Set the bridge priority to 32768.

D.

Leave the bridge priority as the default.

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Question # 70

What configuration is required on the CE device when using MC-LAG?

A.

The CE must be configured with an MC-LAG to both PE devices.

B.

The CE must be configured with LACP in active mode.

C.

There is no configuration required on the CE.

D.

The CE must be an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

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Question # 71

Which of the following needs to be considered when designing Ethernet networks with redundancy?

A.

Processing the TTL takes extra time.

B.

MAC learning rate is doubled.

C.

FDB size is doubled.

D.

Requires a protocol to remove loops.

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Question # 72

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A is on VLAN 200 and CE-B is on VLAN 300. Which of the following SAP ids can be configured on PE-A and PE-B to allow direct communication between CE-A and CE-B?

A.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:200" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:300.

B.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1".

C.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:0" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:0".

D.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:*" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:*".

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Question # 73

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

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Question # 74

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

A.

"client2" routes will be only tagged with communities 'East'' and "South".

B.

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "East".

C.

"client2" routes will only be tagged with community "South".

D.

"client2" routes will be rejected.

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Question # 75

Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?

A.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.

B.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.

C.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.

D.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

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Question # 76

The following policies are configured and exported using "export "Policy-1" "Policy-2"". Assuming both "Client-1" and "Client-2" are properly defined on the router, which routes are advertised?

A.

Client-1 routes only.

B.

Client-2 routes only.

C.

Client-1 and Client-2 routes.

D.

Neither Client-1 nor Client-2 routes.

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Question # 77

Click the exhibit.

An update travels from AS 135000 to AS 137000, traversing both 32-bit and 16-bit AS paths.

What will the AS Path be when the update reaches AS 137000?

A.

140000 200 135000

B.

137000 140000 200 135000

C.

140000 23456 135000

D.

135000 200 140000

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Question # 78

A router receives two routes from its neighbors: a route from OSPF for 10.0.0.0/24, and a route from BGP for 10.0.0.0/8. Both routes have reachable next hops. Which of the following is TRUE?

A.

Only the BGP route is in the route table.

B.

Both routes are in the route table.

C.

None of the routes is in the route table.

D.

Only the OSPF route is in the route table.

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Question # 79

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Assume routers R4, R5 and R6 are configured with addpaths ipv4 send 2 receive". Which routes to 192.168.0.1/27 is router R6 expected to have in its BGP routing table?

A.

Two routes from router R4.

B.

Two routes from router R5.

C.

Two routes; one from router R4 and one from router R5.

D.

Four routes; two from router R4 and two from router R5.

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Question # 80

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following can be used by router R4 in AS 65542 to reject all routes originating in AS 65540?

A.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression ".+ 65540 .+".

B.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression ".+ 65540".

C.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression "65540 .+".

D.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression "65540".

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Question # 81

Which of the following statements regarding BGP Add-Paths is FALSE?

A.

Add-Paths allows non-best paths to be advertised to a peer.

B.

Add-Paths capabilities are exchanged between peers after the BGP session is established.

C.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to receive multiple paths from its peer.

D.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to send multiple paths to its peer.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is TRUE?

A.

There can only be one community associated with a route.

B.

Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Community is an optional transitive attribute.

D.

Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.

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Question # 83

A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200 65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS Path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 100. Which route will appear in the RIB-out?

A.

Only the first route will appear in the RIB-Out.

B.

Only the second route will appear in the RIB-Out.

C.

Only the third route will appear in the RIB-Out.

D.

All routes will appear in the RIB-Out.

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Question # 84

Which of the following regarding the atomic aggregate attribute is TRUE?

A.

It is an optional transitive attribute.

B.

It is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the aggregator attribute is set.

D.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the AS Path information is lost due to aggregation.

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Question # 85

What is the purpose of configuring a triggered-policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A.

Policy changes are delayed until the peer router with the affected routes reboots.

B.

Policy changes are delayed until route updates for affected BGP routes are received from peers.

C.

Policy changes are delayed until BGP sessions are cleared or BGP is reset.

D.

Policy changes are delayed until the router reboots.

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Question # 86

Which of the following AS Paths will match the regular expression "65100."?

A.

"65100"

B.

"65100 65200''

C.

"65200 65100"

D.

"65100 65250 65200"

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Question # 87

What is the default Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR TTL of a BGP advertisement between confederation members?

A.

1

B.

32

C.

64

D.

255

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Question # 88

What kind of BGP attribute is the Multi_Exit_Disc?

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

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Question # 89

Which of the following behaviors regarding the modification of BGP attributes within a confederation is TRUE?

A.

Next Hop is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

B.

Origin Code is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

C.

AS Path is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

D.

None of the well known mandatory attributes is modified within a confederation.

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Question # 90

Which of the following statements regarding BGP shortcuts is FALSE?

A.

MPLS tunnels are used to carry transit traffic across the network.

B.

A full mesh of iBGP peering sessions is not required,

C.

Edge and transit routers need to be configured with BGP.

D.

The transit routers need to support LDP or RSVP-TE LSPs.

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Question # 91

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP policy?

A.

"client2" routes will be tagged with communities "West" and "North".

B.

"client2" routes will be tagged with communities "West", "North" and "South".

C.

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "West".

D.

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "South".

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Question # 92

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

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Question # 93

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer without a MED. What MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

A.

100

B.

250

C.

The IGP cost

D.

None

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Question # 94

Click the exhibit.

Routers C and E are route reflectors. When the update for prefix 192.168.2.0/24 is received at router F, what will be the Originator_ID attribute?

A.

The router ID of router A.

B.

The router ID of router B.

C.

The router ID of router C.

D.

It will not be set.

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Question # 95

Click the exhibit.

Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?

A.

The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.

B.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.

C.

The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.

D.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

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