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Question # 4

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

A.

data center network pokey con

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address cool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automaton of devices and services

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Question # 5

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

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Question # 6

Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditional campus management uses SNMPv2.

B.

Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campus management uses HTTP.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent from traditional campus management.

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Question # 7

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)

A.

A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port

B.

Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree

C.

An aged MAC (able entry is causing excessive updates

D.

Port-security is configured globally

E.

The forwarding table has overflowed

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Question # 8

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

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Question # 9

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

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Question # 10

Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

A.

channels 2, 7, 9, and 11

B.

channels 1, 6, 11, and 14

C.

channels 2, 7, and 11

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

A.

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

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Question # 12

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

A.

Local

B.

Client

C.

Enterprise

D.

Personal

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Question # 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?

A.

Text Description automatically generated

B.

Text Description automatically generated

C.

Text Description automatically generated

D.

Text Description automatically generated

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Question # 14

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

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Question # 15

What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

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Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

A.

2001 :db8::5000:0004:5678:0090/64

B.

2001 :db8:4425:5400:77ft:fe07:/64

C.

2001 :db8::5000:00ff:fe04 0000/64

D.

2001 :db8::5200:00ff:fe04:0000/64

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Question # 17

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

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Question # 18

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

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Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

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Question # 20

A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 21

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

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Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

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Question # 23

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

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Question # 24

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Question # 25

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

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Question # 26

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

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Question # 27

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 28

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

A.

netstat-n

B.

ipconfig

C.

ifconfig

D.

netstat-r

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Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

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Question # 30

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

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Question # 31

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

IP

D.

TCP

E.

ARP

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Question # 32

What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA center from traditional campus device management?

A.

CLI-oriented device

B.

device-by-device hands-on

C.

centralized

D.

per-device

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Question # 33

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

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Question # 35

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

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Question # 36

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A.

single sign-on

B.

unique user knowledge

C.

passwords that expire

D.

soft tokens

E.

shared password responsibility

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Question # 37

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

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Question # 38

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

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Question # 39

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 40

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

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Question # 41

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 42

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

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Question # 43

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

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Question # 44

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

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Question # 45

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 46

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

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Question # 47

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

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Question # 48

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

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Question # 49

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

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Question # 50

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

A.

conserve public IPv4 addressing

B.

preserve public IPv6 address space

C.

reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

D.

support the NAT protocol

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Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Question # 52

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

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Question # 53

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

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Question # 54

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

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Question # 55

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

A.

switchport port-security violation access

B.

switchport port-security violation protect

C.

switchport port-security violation restrict

D.

switchport port-security violation shutdown

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Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0

R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20

R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Question # 57

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Question # 58

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

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Question # 59

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Question # 60

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

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Question # 61

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Question # 62

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

A.

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.

It drops the frame.

D.

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

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Question # 63

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

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Question # 64

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

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Question # 65

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

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Question # 66

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

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Question # 67

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

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Question # 68

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

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Question # 69

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Full Access
Question # 70

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

A.

allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B.

provides direct connections between subscribers

C.

supports Layer 2 VPNs

D.

supports application optimization

Full Access
Question # 71

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Full Access
Question # 72

What does physical access control regulate?

A.

access to spec fie networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access :o computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Full Access
Question # 73

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

Full Access
Question # 74

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

A.

control layer and the infrastructure layer

B.

application layer and the infrastructure layer

C.

control layer and the application layer

D.

application layer and the management layer

Full Access
Question # 75

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

A.

forwarding

B.

listening

C.

blocking

D.

learning

Full Access
Question # 76

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Full Access
Question # 77

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

Full Access
Question # 78

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Full Access
Question # 79

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

Full Access
Question # 80

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

Full Access
Question # 81

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Full Access
Question # 82

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Full Access
Question # 84

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 85

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Full Access
Question # 86

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Full Access
Question # 87

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

A.

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

Full Access
Question # 88

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Full Access
Question # 89

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

Full Access
Question # 90

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Full Access
Question # 91

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Full Access
Question # 94

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Full Access
Question # 95

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

Full Access
Question # 96

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

Full Access
Question # 98

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Full Access
Question # 99

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Full Access
Question # 100

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Full Access
Question # 101

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 102

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

Full Access
Question # 103

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Full Access
Question # 104

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an error disables state

C.

The link is becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Full Access
Question # 105

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Full Access
Question # 106

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Full Access
Question # 107

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 108

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Full Access
Question # 109

What is the purpose of an SSID?

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access posits

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

Full Access
Question # 110

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 112

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Full Access
Question # 113

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Full Access
Question # 114

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Full Access
Question # 116

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

Full Access
Question # 117

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 118

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 119

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Full Access
Question # 120

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Full Access
Question # 121

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Full Access
Question # 122

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Full Access
Question # 123

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

Full Access
Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Full Access
Question # 125

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Full Access
Question # 126

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 127

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 128

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 129

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Full Access
Question # 130

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Full Access
Question # 131

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Full Access
Question # 132

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Full Access
Question # 133

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Full Access
Question # 134

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Full Access
Question # 136

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Full Access
Question # 137

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Full Access
Question # 138

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Full Access
Question # 139

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Full Access
Question # 140

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Full Access
Question # 141

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Full Access
Question # 142

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Full Access
Question # 143

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

Full Access
Question # 144

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 145

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 146

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Full Access
Question # 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Full Access
Question # 148

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Full Access
Question # 149

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

B.

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

C.

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

D.

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Full Access
Question # 151

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Full Access
Question # 152

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Full Access
Question # 153

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Full Access
Question # 154

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 156

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Full Access
Question # 157

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Full Access
Question # 158

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

Full Access
Question # 159

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Full Access
Question # 160

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Full Access
Question # 161

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 162

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

Full Access
Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Full Access
Question # 164

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

A.

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

B.

transfers files between file systems on a router

C.

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

D.

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

Full Access
Question # 165

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Full Access
Question # 166

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Full Access
Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 170

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 171

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Full Access
Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 173

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Full Access
Question # 174

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 175

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

Full Access
Question # 176

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Full Access
Question # 177

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Full Access
Question # 178

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Full Access
Question # 179

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Full Access
Question # 180

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Full Access
Question # 181

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Full Access
Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Full Access
Question # 183

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Full Access
Question # 184

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 185

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 186

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Full Access
Question # 187

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Full Access
Question # 188

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Full Access
Question # 190

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 191

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Full Access
Question # 192

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 193

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Full Access
Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

i

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

I

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Full Access
Question # 197

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 198

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Full Access
Question # 200

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 201

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 205

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Full Access
Question # 206

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Full Access
Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Full Access
Question # 208

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 .password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Full Access
Question # 209

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 210

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Full Access
Question # 211

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Full Access
Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Full Access
Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 214

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Full Access
Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Full Access
Question # 216

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Full Access
Question # 217

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Full Access
Question # 218

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 219

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 220

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000

Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Full Access
Question # 221

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Full Access
Question # 223

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 224

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

Full Access
Question # 225

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

Full Access
Question # 226

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

A.

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

B.

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

C.

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

Full Access
Question # 227

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Full Access
Question # 228

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

Full Access
Question # 229

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

A.

200 seconds

B.

300 seconds

C.

600 seconds

D.

900 seconds

Full Access
Question # 230

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 231

Refer to the exhibit.

Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

A.

queuing

B.

marking

C.

shaping

D.

policing

Full Access
Question # 232

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

Full Access