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Question # 4

What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

A.

Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system

B.

Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system

C.

Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system

D.

Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise, either physically or logically.

Full Access
Question # 5

What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?

A.

crgrrgre

B.

np+e

C.

c(rgr)e

D.

ce

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Question # 6

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

A.

physical location of an object in memory

B.

set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C.

system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D.

set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

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Question # 7

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

A.

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server, i

B.

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

C.

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

D.

Scan open services and ports on a server.

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Question # 8

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

A.

host-based intrusion detection

B.

systems-based sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antivirus

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Question # 9

What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access?

A.

date of birth

B.

driver's license number

C.

gender

D.

zip code

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Question # 10

Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

A.

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

C.

Redefine signature rules.

D.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

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Question # 11

Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

A.

false negative

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false positive

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Question # 12

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified'? (Choose two.)

A.

SOX

B.

PII

C.

PHI

D.

PCI

E.

copyright

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Question # 13

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

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Question # 14

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

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Question # 15

An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist. Further analysis shows that the threat actor connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data. The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?

A.

list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

B.

external USB device

C.

receptionist and the actions performed

D.

stolen data and its criticality assessment

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Question # 16

Which attack is the network vulnerable to when a stream cipher like RC4 is used twice with the same key?

A.

forgery attack

B.

plaintext-only attack

C.

ciphertext-only attack

D.

meet-in-the-middle attack

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Question # 17

Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?

A.

resource exhaustion

B.

tunneling

C.

traffic fragmentation

D.

timing attack

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Question # 18

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A.

data availability

B.

data normalization

C.

data signature

D.

data protection

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Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

Full Access
Question # 20

A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages. When an engineer examines traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, they notice that many SYNs have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but they have different payloads. What is causing this situation?

A.

TCP injection

B.

misconfiguration of a web filter

C.

Failure of the full packet capture solution

D.

insufficient network resources

Full Access
Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

What is depicted in the exhibit?

A.

Windows Event logs

B.

Apache logs

C.

IIS logs

D.

UNIX-based syslog

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Question # 22

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

A.

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B.

categorizing critical assets within the organization

C.

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

D.

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

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Question # 23

An analyst is using the SIEM platform and must extract a custom property from a Cisco device and capture the phrase, "File: Clean." Which regex must the analyst import?

A.

File: Clean

B.

^Parent File Clean$

C.

File: Clean (.*)

D.

^File: Clean$

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Question # 24

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

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Question # 25

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

Full Access
Question # 26

Which tool gives the ability to see session data in real time?

A.

tcpdstat

B.

trafdump

C.

tcptrace

D.

trafshow

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Question # 27

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Question # 28

What are the two differences between stateful and deep packet inspection? (Choose two )

A.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet filtering checks only TCP source and destination ports

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and stateful inspection is not

C.

Deep packet inspection operates on Layer 3 and 4. and stateful inspection operates on Layer 3 of the OSI model

D.

Deep packet inspection is capable of TCP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can inspect TCP and UDP.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not

Full Access
Question # 29

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

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Question # 30

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

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Question # 31

What is data encapsulation?

A.

Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

B.

The protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.

C.

Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.

D.

Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.

Full Access
Question # 32

Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

A.

social engineering

B.

session hijacking

C.

evasion

D.

phishing

Full Access
Question # 33

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

Full Access
Question # 34

A user received a malicious attachment but did not run it. Which category classifies the intrusion?

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

installation

D.

delivery

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Question # 35

Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?

A.

time it takes to detect the incident

B.

time it takes to assess the risks of the incident

C.

probability of outage caused by the incident

D.

probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident

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Question # 36

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

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Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A.

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

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Question # 38

Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)

A.

UDP port to which the traffic is destined

B.

TCP port from which the traffic was sourced

C.

source IP address of the packet

D.

destination IP address of the packet

E.

UDP port from which the traffic is sourced

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Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Which alert is identified from this packet capture?

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

ARP poisoning

C.

brute-force attack

D.

SQL injection

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Question # 40

Which type of attack uses a botnet to reflect requests off of an NTP server to overwhelm a target?

A.

Display

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Distributed denial of service

D.

Denial of service

Full Access
Question # 41

Which statement describes patch management?

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

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Question # 42

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

Full Access
Question # 43

Refer to the exhibit.

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

A.

SSH

B.

TCP

C.

TLS

D.

HTTP

Full Access
Question # 44

Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

A.

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

B.

Divide the network into parts

C.

Split packets into pieces.

D.

Reduce the load on network devices.

E.

Implement the patch management process

Full Access
Question # 45

Which data format is the most efficient to build a baseline of traffic seen over an extended period of time?

A.

syslog messages

B.

full packet capture

C.

NetFlow

D.

firewall event logs

Full Access
Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

A company's user HTTP connection to a malicious site was blocked according to configured policy What is the source technology used for this measure'?

A.

network application control

B.

firewall

C.

IPS

D.

web proxy

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Question # 47

An engineer configured regular expression “.”\.(pd][Oo][Cc)|[Xx][LI][Ss]|[Pp][Pp][Tt]) HTTP/1 .[01]" on Cisco ASA firewall. What does this regular expression do?

A.

It captures documents in an HTTP network session.

B.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .pdf files in HTTP v1.0 and v1.1.

C.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .ppt files extensions in HTTP v1.0.

D.

It captures Word, Excel, and PowerPoint files in HTTPv1.0 and v1.1.

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Question # 48

Which step in the incident response process researches an attacking host through logs in a SIEM?

A.

detection and analysis

B.

preparation

C.

eradication

D.

containment

Full Access
Question # 49

Drag and drop the uses on the left onto the type of security system on the right.

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Question # 50

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

Full Access
Question # 51

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

A.

internet

B.

transport

C.

application

D.

data link

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Question # 52

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must the engineer implement in this scenario'?

A.

X 509 certificates

B.

RADIUS server

C.

CA server

D.

web application firewall

Full Access
Question # 53

What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

A.

The system detected an XSS attack

B.

Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network

C.

Another device is gaining root access to the system

D.

A privileged user successfully logged into the system

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Question # 54

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

A.

Vaporization

B.

Delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

Action on objectives

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Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

Full Access
Question # 56

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

Full Access
Question # 57

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

A.

transaction data

B.

statistical data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Question # 58

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

A.

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.

SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.

SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

Full Access
Question # 59

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

A.

queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed

B.

deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion

C.

is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory

D.

has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

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Question # 60

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

A.

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

Full Access
Question # 61

Which event is a vishing attack?

A.

obtaining disposed documents from an organization

B.

using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network

C.

setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot

D.

impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call

Full Access
Question # 62

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?

A.

identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities

B.

detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code

C.

conducts vulnerability scans on the network

D.

manages a list of reported vulnerabilities

Full Access
Question # 63

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

A.

code signing enforcement

B.

full assets scan

C.

internet exposed devices

D.

single factor authentication

Full Access
Question # 64

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

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Question # 65

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A.

Firepower

B.

Email Security Appliance

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Stealthwatch

Full Access
Question # 66

Which open-sourced packet capture tool uses Linux and Mac OS X operating systems?

A.

NetScout

B.

tcpdump

C.

SolarWinds

D.

netsh

Full Access
Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker scanned the server using Nmap.

What did the attacker obtain from this scan?

A.

Identified a firewall device preventing the port state from being returned

B.

Identified open SMB ports on the server

C.

Gathered information on processes running on the server

D.

Gathered a list of Active Directory users.

Full Access
Question # 68

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

Full Access
Question # 69

Endpoint logs indicate that a machine has obtained an unusual gateway address and unusual DNS servers via DHCP Which type of attack is occurring?

A.

command injection

B.

man in the middle attack

C.

evasion methods

D.

phishing

Full Access
Question # 70

A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port scanning activity to main HR database servers from one of the HR endpoints via Cisco StealthWatch. What are the two next steps of the SOC team according to the NISTSP800-61 incident handling process? (Choose two)

A.

Isolate affected endpoints and take disk images for analysis

B.

Provide security awareness training to HR managers and employees

C.

Block connection to this C&C server on the perimeter next-generation firewall

D.

Update antivirus signature databases on affected endpoints to block connections to C&C

E.

Detect the attack vector and analyze C&C connections

Full Access
Question # 71

An engineer received a flood of phishing emails from HR with the source address HRjacobm@companycom. What is the threat actor in this scenario?

A.

phishing email

B.

sender

C.

HR

D.

receiver

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Question # 72

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

Full Access
Question # 73

An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

A.

Recovery

B.

Detection

C.

Eradication

D.

Analysis

Full Access
Question # 74

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

A.

Inline interrogation is less complex as traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data.

B.

Traffic mirroring copies the traffic rather than forwarding it directly to the analysis tools

C.

Inline replicates the traffic to preserve integrity rather than modifying packets before sending them to other analysis tools.

D.

Traffic mirroring results in faster traffic analysis and inline is considerably slower due to latency.

Full Access
Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is reviewing a Cuckoo report of a file. What must the engineer interpret from the report?

A.

The file will appear legitimate by evading signature-based detection.

B.

The file will not execute its behavior in a sandbox environment to avoid detection.

C.

The file will insert itself into an application and execute when the application is run.

D.

The file will monitor user activity and send the information to an outside source.

Full Access
Question # 76

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

Full Access
Question # 77

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

A.

incorrect TCP handshake

B.

incorrect UDP handshake

C.

incorrect OSI configuration

D.

incorrect snaplen configuration

Full Access
Question # 78

What is a comparison between rule-based and statistical detection?

A.

Statistical is based on measured data while rule-based uses the evaluated probability approach.

B.

Rule-based Is based on assumptions and statistical uses data Known beforehand.

C.

Rule-based uses data known beforehand and statistical is based on assumptions.

D.

Statistical uses the probability approach while rule-based Is based on measured data.

Full Access
Question # 79

Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

A.

denial of service

B.

ARP cache poisoning

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

command and control

Full Access
Question # 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

A.

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

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Question # 81

An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168.1.0/24 range without triggering intrusive portscan alerts on the IDS device using Nmap. Which command will accomplish this goal?

A.

nmap --top-ports 192.168.1.0/24

B.

nmap –sP 192.168.1.0/24

C.

nmap -sL 192.168.1.0/24

D.

nmap -sV 192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 82

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

A.

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.

The total incident escalations per week.

C.

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.

The total incident escalations per month.

Full Access
Question # 83

Which HTTP header field is used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?

A.

referrer

B.

host

C.

user-agent

D.

accept-language

Full Access
Question # 84

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

TCP connections

B.

ping of death

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

code-red

E.

UDP flooding

Full Access
Question # 85

Which artifact is used to uniquely identify a detected file?

A.

file timestamp

B.

file extension

C.

file size

D.

file hash

Full Access
Question # 86

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A.

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

B.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

Full Access
Question # 87

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server Which display filters should the analyst use to filter the FTP traffic?

A.

dstport == FTP

B.

tcp.port==21

C.

tcpport = FTP

D.

dstport = 21

Full Access
Question # 88

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

Full Access
Question # 89

What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-based detection?

A.

Signature-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while behavior-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

B.

Behavior-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while signature-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

C.

Behavior-based uses a known vulnerability database, while signature-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

D.

Signature-based uses a known vulnerability database, while behavior-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

Full Access
Question # 90

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

Full Access
Question # 91

When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?

A.

full packet capture

B.

NetFlow data

C.

session data

D.

firewall logs

Full Access
Question # 92

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Full Access
Question # 93

What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

A.

It lowers maintenance costs

B.

It provides a centralized platform

C.

It collects and detects all traffic locally

D.

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

Full Access
Question # 94

An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat’s entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide?

A.

Recover from the threat.

B.

Analyze the threat.

C.

Identify lessons learned from the threat.

D.

Reduce the probability of similar threats.

Full Access
Question # 95

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

A.

Cross-Site Scripting attack

B.

XML External Entitles attack

C.

Insecure Deserialization

D.

Regular GET requests

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Question # 96

How does a certificate authority impact security?

A.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

B.

It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

D.

It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.

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Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

A suspicious IP address is tagged by Threat Intelligence as a brute-force attempt source After the attacker produces many of failed login entries, it successfully compromises the account. Which stakeholder is responsible for the incident response detection step?

A.

employee 5

B.

employee 3

C.

employee 4

D.

employee 2

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Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?

A.

insert TCP subdissectors

B.

extract a file from a packet capture

C.

disable TCP streams

D.

unfragment TCP

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Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

A.

The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B.

The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C.

The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D.

The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

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